Maharashtra PGMAT MH-PGM-CET 2014 MCQ Discussion


Maharashtra PGMAT – 2014 Live discussion with explanatory answers

 Maharashtra PGMAT MH-PGM-CET 2014

8 Mock tests of 300 MCQ pattern of Maharashtra PGMAT MH-PGM-CET 2015 from Dec 7 th



1. Which of the following contributes to the development of the thoraco-abdominal diaphragm ?
A) Pleuropericardial membrane
B) Dorsal mesentery of oesophagus
C) Splanchnopleuric mesoderm
D) Intermediate mesoderm
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

PLEUROPERITONEAL MEMBRANES fuse with the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus and with the dorsal part of the septum transversum to complete the partition between the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities to form the primitive diaphragm. They represent only a small portion of the final adult structure

2. Which of the following muscle is pierced while tapping of pleural fluid in mid-axillary line in 6th intercostal space ?
A) Pectoralis Major
B) Transverse thoracis
C) Serratus Anterior
D) External oblique
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Hydrolytic enzymes are found in
A) Ribosomes
B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Peroxisome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

3. A stab wound to the arm severs the musculocutaneous nerve in a young girl resulting in
Loss of sensations on medical aspect of forearm
Weakness in supination of the forearm
C) Difficulty in extending the elbow
D) Paralysis of Teres major muscle
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

4. Incudo-stapedial joint is which type of synovial joint ?
A) Plain
B) Saddle
C) Ball and Socket
D) Condylar
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (which results in pellagra) will be less severe if the diet has a high content of
A) Trypophan
B) Tyrosine
C) Thymine
D) Thiamine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

5. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies following muscles EXCEPT
A) Posterior cricoarytenoid
B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
C) Cricothyroid
D) Oblique artenoid+A6
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Physiology Maharashtra PGMAT MH-PGM-CET 2014

6. Zona fasciculata of suprarenal gland produces
A) Minerelo-corticoids
B) Gluco-corticoids
C) Sex hormones
D) Adrenaline
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope is
A) 1% sodium hypochlorite
B) 2% glutaraldehyde
C) 5% phenol
D) 70% ethanol
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

An evaluation of a manual disinfection procedure to eliminate HCV from experimentally contaminated endoscopes provided some evidence that cleaning and 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes should prevent transmission 236. A study that used experimentally contaminated hysteroscopes detected HCV by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in one (3%) of 34 samples after cleaning with a detergent, but no samples were positive after treatment with a 2% glutaraldehyde solution for 20 minutes

7. What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is 10 mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100 mg/dL, and urine flow is 2 mL/min ?
A) 10 mL/min
B) 12 mL/min
C) 20 mL/min
D) 25 mL/min
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

100 x 2 = 20 ml/min

8. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by the closure of
A) mitral valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) aortic valve
D) pulmonary valve
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The graph of aortic pressure throughout the cardiac cycle displays a small dip (the “incisure” or “dicrotic notch”) which coincides with the aortic valve closure. The dip in the graph is immediately followed by a brief rise (the “dicrotic wave”) then gradual decline. Just as the ventricles enter into diastole, the brief reversal of flow from the aorta back toward the left ventricle causes the aortic valves to shut. This results in the slight increase in aortic pressure caused by the elastic recoil of the semilunar valves and aort
The Hepatitis D virus is a defective virus that requires its helper to provide
A) an envelope protein
B) transcriptase to transcribe mRNA
C) replicase for its RNA
D) reverse transcriptase
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

9. Which of the following pituitary hormones is an opioid peptide ?
A) β MSH
C) α MSH
D) β endorphin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

10. The neurotransmitter producing vagally mediated increase in Gastrin secretion is
B) Substance P
D) Guanylin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Gastrin-releasing peptide is a regulatory human peptide that elicits gastrin release and regulates gastric acid secretion and enteric motor function.[5] The post-ganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve that innervate the G cells of the stomach release GRP, which stimulates the G cells to release gastrin.
GRP is also involved in the biology of the circadian system, playing a role in the signaling of light to the master circadian oscillator in the suprachiasmatic nuclei of the hypothalamus.

For determining the efficacy of sterilization in an autoclave, the spores of the following organism are used as test organisms
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
D) Clostridium histolyticum
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Biochemistry Maharashtra PGMAT MH-PGM-CET 2014

11. Formation of Okasaki fragments occurs in
A) Transcription
B) Replication
C) Translation
D) Reverse transcription
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Okazaki fragments are short, newly synthesized DNA fragments that are formed on the lagging template strand during DNA replication. They are complementary to the lagging template strand, together forming short double-stranded DNA sections. Okazaki fragments are between 1,000 and 2,000 nucleotides long in Escherichia coli and are 150 nucleotides long in eukaryotes. They are separated by ~10-nucleotide RNA primers and are unligated until RNA primers are removed, followed by enzyme ligase connecting (ligating) the two Okazaki fragments into one continuous newly synthesized complementary strand.

On the leading strand DNA replication proceeds continuously along the DNA molecule as the parent double-stranded DNA is unwound, but on the lagging strand the new DNA is made in installments, which are later joined together by a DNA ligase enzyme. This is because the enzymes that synthesise the new DNA can only work in one direction along the parent DNA molecule. On the leading strand this route is continuous, but on the lagging strand it is discontinuous.[1]

DNA is synthesised from 5′ to 3′, thus when copying the 3′ to 5′ strand, replication is continuous. Phosphodiester links form between the 3′ to 5′ and nucleotides can be added with the aid of the enzyme DNA polymerase for the continuous leading strand. However, in order to synthesise the lagging strand (the replication fork which is travelling in the opposite direction) synthesis occurs in small sections (100-200 nucleotides at a time in eukaryotes). These new stretches of DNA are called Okazaki fragments and each one requires its own RNA primer.

12. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by primary
A) deficit of carbonic acid
B) excess of carbonic acid
C) deficit of bicarbonate
D) excess of bicarbonate
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Eggs of all the following helminthic worms float in a saturated salt solution EXCEPT
A) Eggs of Necator americans
B) Eggs of Enterobius vermicularis
C) Eggs of Hymenolepis nana
D) Eggs of Taenia solium
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

13. Which of the following enzymes produce a product used for synthesis of ATP by substrate level phosphorylation ?
A) Phosphofructokinase
B) Aldolase
C) Phosphoglycerate mutase
D) Enolase
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

14. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and the lowest TG content is
D) Chylomicrons
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Which of the following is a class II anti-arrythmic drug ?
A) Propranolol
B) Digoxin
C) Amidarone
D) Lidocaine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

15. UDP glucuronyl transferase deficiency results in
A) Gilbert’s disease
B) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
D) Rotor syndrome”
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


16. Quantitative cultures are necessary for laboratory diagnosis in infection of
A) Urinary tract
B) Blood stream
C) Lungs
D) Small intestine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
16. Acute febrile illness with vasculitis having predilection for the coronary arteries is seen in
A) Kawasaki disease
B) Adenovirus infection
C) Diphtheria
D) Measles
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

17. In first week of illness, laboratory diagnosis of dengue is commonly done by
A) Suckling mouse inoculation
B) Chick embryo culture
C) NS 1 antigen detection
D) IgG antibody detection
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

NS1 antigen test (NS1 stands for nonstructural protein 1), full name is Platelia Dengue NS1 Ag assay, is a test for dengue made by Bio-Rad Laboratories and Pasteur Institute, introduced in 2006. It allows rapid detection on the first day of fever, before antibodies appear some 5 or more days later.[1][2]
It has been adopted for use in some 40 nations. The method of detection is through enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.[3]
India has introduced in 2010 the NS1 test costing 1,600 rupees at a private hospital in Mumbai.Now available at Rs 1100 at many private hospitals and laboratories in Delhi.Resullts available the same da

18. Population doubling time in coliform bacilli is
A) 20 seconds
B) 20 minutes
C) 20 hours
D) 20 days
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

generation time or population doubling time. In coliform bacilli and many other medically important bacteria, the generation time is about 20 minutes

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with thrombocytopenia and renal insufficiency is commonly seen in young children with
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C) Malaria
D) S.L.E (systemic lupus erythematosus)
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

19. A person is positive for HBsAg, HBeAg and Anti-HBc – IgM, in relation to hepatitis B, this is a case of
A) Acute infection
B) Chronic infection
C) Remote infection
D) Highly infections acute infection
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

20. Cause of epilepsy in upto 50% Indian patients is
A) Neurocysticercosis
B) Cerebral malaria
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) Cerebral hydatid cyst
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Cherry red skin is seen in which poisoning ?
B) Methhaemoglobineuria
C) Methanol
D) Carbon monoxide
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

21. Four hours after eating Chinese fried rice, a group of persons suffers from acute vomiting. What is the most likely causative agent ?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Clostridium welchii
D) Vibrio parahemolyticus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


22. Which of the following drug is prone to cause Gouty arthritis ?
A) Isoniazid
B) Ethionamide
C) Pyrazinamide
D) Streptomycin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The initiation of the first breath in a newborn is due to
A) ↑ pH; ↑ PaO2; ↓ PaCO2
B) ↓ pH; ↓ PaO2; ↑ PaCO2
C) ↓ pH, ↓PaO2, ↓PaCO2
D) ↓ pH; ↑PaO2, ↓PaCO2
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

23. Selective alpha one receptor blocker is
A) Atenolol
B) Labetalol
C) Prazosin
D) Carvedilol
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Examples of non-selective α-adrenergic blockers include:
Typical and atypical antipsychotics

Selective α1-adrenergic blockers include:

Selective α2-adrenergic blockers include:

The agents carvedilol and labetalol are both α- and β-blockers.

A 25 year old female presented to the hospital on the third day of menstruation with complaints of high fever, vomiting and a rash on her trunk and extremities. On investigation she had leucocytosis and a negative blood culture. She is diagnosed as
A) Staphylococcal food poisoning
B) Scalded skin syndrome
C) Toxic shock syndrome
D) Varicella zoster infection

24. Tranexamic acid is a
A) Antithrombotic
B) Antifibrinolytic
C) Fibrinolytic
D) Styptic
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

25. Digoxin acts by inhibiting
A) Na+ K+ ATPase
B) H+ K+ ATPase
C) NA+–K+–2Cl channel
D) Na+ – H+ ATPase
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The appearance of cobweb formation in CSF indicates _________
A) Pyogenic meningitis
B) Viral meningitis
C) Tuberculous meningitis
D) Fungal meningitis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

26. Therapeutic concentration of lithium in bipolar disorder is
A) 0.1 to 0.3 mEq/L
B) 0.3 to 0.6 mEq/L
C) 0.5 to 0.8 mEq/L
D) 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

27. Which of the following is longest acting corticosteroid ?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Prednisolone
C) Triamcinolone
D) Hydrocortisone
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


28. Which of the following malignancy is commonly found in AIDS patients ?
A) Kaposi’s sarcoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Cavernous hemangioma
D) Melanoma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Formation of granulation tissue is due to
A) Thrombosed vessels
B) Infiltration of cells
C) Budding of new capillaries
D) Mucosal proliferation
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

After several days, granulation tissue forms as a result of migration of fibroblasts to the area of injury and formation of new capillaries

29. Pheochromocytoma is a tumour of
A) Parathyroid
B) Adrenal medulla
C) Adrenal cortex
D) Pituitary
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

30. Which type of viral hepatitis is associated with high mortality in pregnant women ?
A) Hepatitis B virus
B) Hepatitis E virus
C) Hepatitis D virus
D) Hepatitis C virus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Krukenberg tumour of ovary is due to carcinoma of ________
A) Stomach
B) Lung
C) Central nervous system
D) Thyroid
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

31. Skip lesions are characteristic of
A) Intestinal tuberculosis
B) Enteric fever
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Crohn’s disease
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

32. The major compatibility test before blood transfusion consists of cross matching of
A) Donor’s red cells and Recepients serum
B) Donor’s serum and Recepients red cells
C) Donor’s serum and Recepients serum
D) Donor’s red cells and Recepients red cells
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Councilman bodies are seen in
A) Wilson disease
B) Acute viral hepatitis
C) Alcoholic hepatitis
D) Autoimmune hepatitis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

a Councilman body, also known as Councilman hyaline body, is an eosinophilic globule often surrounded by normal parenchyma found in the liver of individuals suffering from viral hepatitis, yellow fever, or other viral syndrome. [1] It represents a hepatocyte that is undergoing apoptosis.
They are also seen in acute viral hepatitis.

33. A grape like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in a 4 yr old girl is characteristic of
A) Fibrosarcoma
B) Sarcoma botryoides
C) Leiomyosarcoma
D) Inflammatory polyp

(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Forensic Medicine

34. The doctor can reveal the professional secrets without the consent of patient in following circumstances, EXCEPT
A) Privileged communication
B) Courts of Law
C) Newspaper
D) Suspected crime to police
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Chloroma is due to
D) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

35. Blisters/vesicles are seen in all the following cases, EXCEPT
A) Flame Burns
B) Electric Burns
C) Brush Burns
D) The margins of hanging mark

(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

35. Blisters/vesicles are seen in all the following cases, EXCEPT
A) Flame Burns
B) Electric Burns
C) Brush Burns
D) The margins of hanging mark
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

36. Priming Mixture in percussion cap of a shotgun cartridge contains
A) Potassium Chlorate
B) Potassium Nitrate
C) Potassium Carbonate
D) Potassium Oxalate
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Incandescent particles were found most effective for igniting smokeless powder after the primary explosive gasses had heated the powder grains. Artillery charges frequently included a smaller quantity of black powder to be ignited by the primer, so incandescent potassium carbonate would spread fire through the smokeless powder.[7] Potassium chlorate was added to mercury fulminate priming mixtures so incandescent potassium chloride would have a similar effect in small arms cartridges.
Bernad-Soulier syndrome is a defect in platelet
A) Aggregation
B) Adhesion
C) Release reaction
D) Morphology
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

37. Mc Naughten Rule has also been accepted in India as the Law of Criminal Responsibility and is included in Sec._________
A) 84 IPC
B) 85 IPC
C) 89 IPC
D) 91 IPC
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

38. Following are the postmortem diagnostic signs of strangulation EXCEPT
A) Ligature mark completely encircling neck
B) Ecchymosis about the edges of ligature mark
C) Dribbling saliva from angle of mouth
D) Fracture of thyroid cartilage
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


39. Which of the below is an example of affective learning ?
A) Measuring pulse rate
B) Enumerating causes of obesity
C) Motivating a person for blood donation
D) Arriving at differential diagnosis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Domains of Learning
cognitive, affective, psychomotor, and interpersonal.

The affective domain is critical for learning but is often not specifically addressed. This is the domain that deals with attitudes, motivation, willingness to participate, valuing what is being learned, and ultimately incorporating the values of a discipline into a way of life.

Stages in that domain are not as sequential as the cognitive domain, but have been described as the following:
Receiving (willing to listen)
Responding (willing to participate)
Valuing (willing to be involved)
Organizing (willing to be an advocate)
Characterization (willing to change one’s behavior, lifestyle, or way of life)

Cognitive Domain
This domain focuses on intellectual skills and is familiar to educators. Bloom’s Taxonomy (knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, and evaluation) is frequently used to describe the increasing complexity of cognitive skills as students move from beginner to more advanced in their knowledge of content

Psychomotor Domain
The psychomotor domain focuses on performing sequences of motor activities to a specified level of accuracy, smoothness, rapidity, or force. Underlying the motor activity is cognitive understanding.

Interpersonal Domain
The Interpersonal domain focuses on people interacting with others.

Skin cancer is caused by due to exposure to
A) Asbestos
B) Arsenic
C) Nitrosamine
D) Vinyl chloride
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

40. Which of the oils given below is the best source of linoleic acid ?
A) Ground nut
B) Mustard
C) Palm
D) Coconut
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

41. In which phase of demographic cycle is India now ?
A) High stationary
B) Early expanding
C) Late expanding
D) Low stationary
C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

42. In patient with Malaria, if fever has periodicity of 72 hours, which one of the following is likely to be causative agent ?
A) P. falciparum
B) P. vivax
C) P. ovale
D) P. malariae
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In Vitamin-A deficiency, cancerous lesions occur due to
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Aplasia
D) Hyperplasia
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

43. In clinical trials one can take care of the effects of unknown confounders by
A) Matching cases and controls
B) Randomization of study subjects
C) Proper selection of cases and controls
D) Properly measuring exposure and outcome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

44. Color coding of container for disposal of human anatomical waste is (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
A) Yellow
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Black

Munro microabscesses occur in
A) Psoriasis
B) Lichen planus
C) Lupus vulgaris
D) Impetigo
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

45. If a disease has three times more incidence in females as compared to males and same prevalence in both males and females, true statement will be
A) It is highly fatal in females
B) More survival in females
C) Better prognosis in males
D) Less fatal in males
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
46. Prophylaxis with vitamin ‘C’ is helpful in preventing
A) Flurosis
B) Neuro Lathyrism
C) Iodine deficiency
D) Botulism
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
In proximal ballistics ‘primer’ means
A) Detonator
B) Projectile
C) Pellets
D) Gunpowder
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Primer is an initiation device which consists of a container, which holds the explosive, and a cap received on the open end of the container. The container has two lateral opposing cord tunnels which run the length of the container. The cord tunnels protect the fuse cord on the inside of the primer.


A detonator is a device used to trigger an explosive device. Detonators can be chemically, mechanically, or electrically initiated, the latter two being the most common.

47. Which of the following is NOT a source of infection in plague ?
A) Case of bubonic plague
B) Case of pneumonic plague
C) Infected rodents
D) Infected fleas
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Period of communicability
Infected fleas may remain infectious for months.
Bubonic plague is not usually transmitted from person to person unless there is direct contact with pus from suppurating buboes.
Pneumonic plague may be highly communicable under appropriate climatic conditions.
Patients are usually no longer infectious after receiving 48–72 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment

Transmission of Y. pestis to an uninfected individual is possible by any of the following means.[2]
droplet contact – coughing or sneezing on another person
direct physical contact – touching an infected person, including sexual contact
indirect contact – usually by touching soil contamination or a contaminated surface
airborne transmission – if the microorganism can remain in the air for long periods
fecal-oral transmission – usually from contaminated food or water sources
vector borne transmission – carried by insects or other animals.

48. The base of the Food Guide Pyramid is formed by
A) Cereals and pulses
B) Fruits and vegetables
C) Milk and milk products
D) Meat, poultry and fish
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The type of vegetative endocarditis associated with mucinous adenocarcinoma is
A) Infective endocarditis
B) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
C) Libman-sacks endocarditis
D) Rheumatic endocarditis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) is the deposition of small sterile vegetations on valve leaflets. Formerly known as marantic endocarditis, which comes from the Greek marantikos, meaning “wasting away.”[1] The term “marantic endocarditis” is still sometimes used to emphasize the association with a wasting state[2] such as cancer
49. Which of the following is the correct use of barrier creams ?
A) For contraception
B) Protection from occupational dermatitis
C) As mosquito repellants
D) Protection from contagious diseases
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Virchow’s triad for thrombosis include all EXCEPT
A) Endothelial injury
B) Stasis
C) Platelet aggregation
D) Hypercoagulability
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

50. A 18 year old HIV positive girl has been diagnosed to be suffering from sputum smear negative pulmonary Tuberculosis (New case). The treatment regimen recommended under DOTS for her is
A) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HR)3
B) 2(HRZES)3 + 1(HRZE)3 + 5(HRE)3
C) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HRE)3
D) 2(HRZE)3 + 6(HR)3
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

TB treatment for people living with HIV
Recommendation #4.4 (Strong): receive at least the same duration of TB treatment as HIV negative patients
Includes new WHO recommendations* to
Start antiretroviral treatment in all HIV-infected individuals with active TB, irrespective of CD4 cell count
Start TB treatment first, followed by ART as soon as possible after starting TB treatment

Onanism is
A) Natural sexual offence
B) Unnatural sexual offence
C) Perversion
D) Indecent assault
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In the Book of Genesis, Onan, son of Judah, in fulfillment of the laws of levirate marriage was to impregnate his brother Er’s widow, Tamar, in order to raise offspring from the union in his brother’s name. In order to avoid raising descendants for his late brother, however, Onan spilled his semen on the ground when he went in to his brother’s wife, so that he would not give offspring to his brother. (Genesis 38:9).

Masturbation, homosexual sex, anal sex, oral sex, voyeurism, exhibitionism, fetishism, sadism, masochism, transvestism, bestiality, necrophilia, coprophilia, and urophilia have all been thought perverse, but there is no philosophical or scientific consensus about the nature, origin, or even the genuine existence of sexual perversion

. In analyzing sexual perversion, we need an account both of “perversion” and of “sexual,” that is, of that which makes a sexual act or sexual desire sexual to begin with (see Gray)

Thus the word Onanism was coined, meaning ejaculating outside the vagina, or masturbation (because this also spills semen, rather than using it for procreation).

51. In absence of clinical evidence of thyroid disease, thyroid function tests showing low TSH, raised T4 and normal or low T3 indicates
A) subclinical thyrotoxicosis
B) subclinical hypothyroidism
C) sick euthyroidism
D) transient thyroiditis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Typical NTI findings are T4 level within the reference range, low T3 level, slightly reduced or reference range level of TSH, elevated rT3 level, and a free T4 level that is within the reference range or is elevated.
In severe NTI, the findings are low T4, low T3, reduced TSH, elevated rT3, and free T4 that is within the reference range or is diminished.

Ill patients may have normal, low, or slightly elevated TSH depending on the spectrum of illness.
Total T4 and T3 levels may be altered by binding protein abnormalities, and medications. Reverse T3 levels are generally increased signifying inhibition of normal Type 1 enzyme or reduced clearance of reverse T3.
Generally the levels of Free T3 will be lowered, followed by the lowering of Free T4 in relation to severity of the disease. Patients might have high corticosteroid level.

52. Co-infection with which virus leads to change in antiretroviral therapy in people living with HIV ?
A) Cytomegalo virus
B) Varicella virus
C) Hepatitis B virus
D) JC virus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Cystic Hygroma is found in
A) Klinefelter’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome
C) Edward’s syndrome
D) Turner’s syndrome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

53. Drug of choice to treat H1N1 influenza is (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

A) Acyclovir
B) Cidofovir
C) Oseltamivir
D) Tenofovir

54. Isolated microscopic hematuria of glomerular origin is seen in
A) Acute glomerulo nephritis
B) Hereditary nephritis
C) Acute interstitial nephritis
D) Acute tubular necrosis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Following ACE inhibitors are the prodrugs; EXCEPT
A) Ramipril
B) Lisinopril
C) Enalapril
D) Perindopr
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Lisinopril is the lysine-analog of enalapril. Unlike other ACE inhibitors, it is not a prodrug and is excreted unchanged in the urine. In cases of overdosage, it can be removed from circulation by dialysis

55. Gait disorder described as ‘slipping clutch syndrome’ occurs in
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
A) Cerebellar gait disorder
B) Sensory gait disorder
C) Parkinson gait disorder
D) Frontal gait disorder
Correction C/D

Parkinson’s Disease: Freezing of Gait
Freezing of gait (FOG) is also referred to as “gait ignition failure,” the “slipping clutch syndrome,” or “magnetic gait.”
FOG causes sudden but transient interruption of walking. Patients describe feeling as if their feet are “glued” or “stuck” to the floor.
FOG is commonly observed while initiating gait (“start hesitation”) such as after getting up from a chair or getting out of a car. It often occurs while turning when it commonly causes sudden falls. It may also be caused by a visible obstacle in the path, walking through a doorway or narrow space, in a crowded or cluttered environment, or in a situation in which the patient is rushed or startled.
Patients with multiple deep cerebral infarcts and white matter degeneration commonly exhibit a hesitant, shuffling gait, with preserved arm swing. This pattern of walking is called lower-half or lower-body parkinsonism. Gait initiation and turning consist of one or more short, hesitant steps in which the feet shuffle across the floor

56. Periodic, deep, retroorbital, excruciating, nonfluctuant and explosive headache with ipsilateral lacrimation or rhinorrhoea is characteristic of
A) cluster headache
B) migraine headache
C) hypnic headache
D) tension headache
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Which of the following is resistant to both true and pseudo cholinesterase enzymes ?
A) Bethanechol
B) Acetylcholine
C) Methacholine
D) Pilocarpine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

57. The study of alteration in chromatin and histone proteins and methylation of DNA sequence that influence gene expression is called as
A) proteomics
B) metagenomics
C) epigenomics
D) metabolomics
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

58. The circulating neutrophils are usually mature and not clonally derived in
A) leucocytosis
B) neutropenia
C) leukemoid reactions
D) neutrophilia
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Predominant neurotransmitter in post-ganglionic sympathetic nerves is
A) Adrenaline
B) Dopamine
C) 5 Hydroxytryptamine
D) Noradrenaline
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

• ACh is preganglionic neurotransmitter; norepinephrine is predominant post-ganglionic neurotransmitter at effectors: termed adrenergic.
The neurotransmitters of postganglionic fibers differ:
In the parasympathetic division, neurons are cholinergic (that is, acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter.)
In the sympathetic division, neurons are mostly adrenergic (that is, epinephrine and norepinephrine function as the primary neurotransmitters.
Two exceptions to this rule are the sympathetic innervation of sweat glands and arrectores pilorum muscles where the neurotransmitter at both pre and post ganglionic synapses is acetylcholine and the vessels in the renal cortex where dopamine is used as the main neurotransmitter. Another exception is the sympathetic innervation of the medulla of the adrenal glands, which is accomplished by preganglionic fibers, and subsequently uses acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. The cells of the adrenal medulla are actually modified postganglionic neurons which secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into the blood stream rather than into a synapse

59. The more intensive approach calls for tuberculoid leprosy to be treated with rifampicin 600 mg/d for 3 years and dapsone 100 mg/day for
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) throughout life
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Given the unreliability of skin smears and the lack of accessibility to histopathology in many countries in which leprosy is endemic, treatment regimens are based on the number of lesions present.
Paucibacillary disease in adults ( Multibacillary disease in adults (≥6 skin lesions) is treated with dapsone (100 mg/d) plus clofazimine (50 mg/d)—unsupervised—in addition to rifampin (600 mg monthly) plus clofazimine (300 mg monthly)—supervised—for 1–2 years.
Some experts prefer rifampin (600 mg/d) for 3 years and dapsone (100 mg/d) for life.
Relapse can occur years later; prolonged follow-up is needed.

60. Hormone that remain stable with aging is
A) insulin
B) insulin growth factor
C) glucagon like peptide I
D) vaso active intestinal peptide
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

NSAIDS are commonly used as first line therapy in the pain of
A) Malignancy
B) Migraine
C) Neuropathy
D) Visceral pain except dysmenorrhea
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

61. The drug considered as a risk factor for calciphylaxis is
A) calcium
B) diuretic
C) warfarin
D) heparin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Calciphylaxis is a poorly understood and highly morbid syndrome of vascular calcification and skin necrosis
Corticosteroids, aluminum, hyperparathyroidism, liver disease, warfarin therapy, and a variety of inflammatory processes all can alter this balance and promote vascular calcification.[7, 8] Chronic inflammatory conditions may predispose to calciphylaxis by reducing serum levels of fetuin-A, an important inhibitor of calcification produced in the liver

62. Omalizumab is a blocking antibody that neutralises circulating
A) IgE
B) Leukotrines
C) Cromones
D) TNF and antibodies
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Antiepileptic action of phenobarbitone may be counteracted by
A) Vit. B12
B) Vit. C
C) Folic acid
D) Iron preparations
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

oral tablets of folic acid not exceed 1 mg because of concerns brought forward more than 30 years ago that folic acid in large amounts might counteract the antiseizure effects of AEDs and increase the seizure frequency in some children

63. Which of the following factor is associated with better prognosis in adult onset tetanus ?
A) Incubation period < 7 days B) Period of onset > 48 hours
C) Systolic BP > 140 mm of Hg
D) Heart rate > 140 bpm at admission
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

64. Following are potential complications of gene therapy EXCEPT
A) Genotoxicity
B) Genome integration
C) Gene silencing
D) Immunotoxicity
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Potential complications of gene therapy
Gene silencing
Genotoxicity-integration events
Phenotoxicity-overexpression of the protein
Horizontal transmission
Vertical transmission
Gene silencing is a general term used to describe the epigenetic regulation of gene expression.[1] In particular, this term refers to the ability of a cell to prevent the expression of a certain gene.[2] Gene silencing can occur during either transcription or translation and is often used in research.[1][2] In particular, methods used to silence genes are being increasingly used to produce therapeutics to combat cancer and diseases, such as infectious diseases and neurodegenerative disorders.

Which one of the following antimalignancy drug is most nephrotoxic ?
A) Vincristine
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Cisplatin
D) Methotrexate
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

65. All of the following can be complications of hemodialysis EXCEPT
A) Hemorrhage
B) Hypotension
C) Muscle cramps
D) Anaphylactid reaction to dialyzer
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

66. First line antiepileptic drug for treatment of myoclonic seizures is
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Topiramate
D) Carbamazepine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In most patients with JME, seizures are well controlled with monotherapy. Valproic acid has been considered the treatment of choice for JME for many years, but epileptologists are increasingly using other choices as first-line therapies. Approximately 80% of patients with JME become seizure free with valproate monotherapy. Several studies using lamotrigine, topiramate, levetiracetam, and zonisamide have shown similar efficacy to that achieved with divalproex sodium, and in some cases better tolerability.[44]
Levetiracetam is useful for the treatment of myoclonic seizures

Drug of choice in ulcerative colitis is
A) Sulfathiazole
B) Sulfasalazine
C) Sulfadoxin
D) Sulfacetamide
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

67. The most common site for Amebiasis is
A) Sigmoid colon
B) Transverse colon
C) Cecum
D) Hepatic flexure
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

68. Recombinant human insulin is made by
A) CDNA from any Eukaryote cell
B) Genome of any Eukaryote
C) CDNA of Pancreatic cell
D) Genome of Pancreatic cell
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Proton Pump inhibitors are most effective when given
A) half hour before breakfast
B) with meals
C) after prolonged fasting
D) along with H2 blockers
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

69. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell anemia is due to infection of
A) Herpes
B) Parvovirus B 19
D) Papova
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

70. Widened anion gap is not seen in
A) Acute renal failure
B) Diarrhoea
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Pitolisant (INN) or tiprolisant (USAN) is a histamine receptor inverse agonist/antagonist selective for the H3 subtype.
It has stimulant and nootropic effects in animal studies,[2] and may have several medical applications, having been researched for the treatment of narcolepsy, for which it has been granted orphan drug status in the EU and US.[3][4] It is currently in clinical trials for schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.

Tiprolisant is
A) H3 Receptor agonist
B) H3 Receptor antagonist
C) Partial H3 Receptor agonist
D) Inverse H3 Receptor agonist
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
71. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of type two respiratory failure ?
A) PCO2 38 mm Hg PO2 50 mm Hg
B) PCO2 68 mm Hg PO2 50 mm Hg
C) Papilledema
D) Asterixis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

72. Which of the following is most specific and sensitive screening test in renovascular hypertension ?
A) HRCT abdomen
B) CT guided angiography
C) Captopril induced radionuclide scan
D) MRI abdomen
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The major action of 1, 25-di-hydroxy chole-calciferol is
A) Lowering of blood calcium
B) Ca++-deposition in bones
C) Increasing Ca++ -absorption from intestinal lumen
D) Stimulating the gene responsible for PTH-synthesis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

73. All of the following criteria are required for diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome EXCEPT
A) Hypertension
B) BMI ≥ 30 kg/m2
C) Sleep disordered breathing
D) PaCO2 ≥ 45 mm of Hg
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

OHS is another well-known cause of hypoventilation. Abnormal central ventilatory drive and obesity contribute to the development of OHS.
OHS is defined as a combination of obesity, a body mass index greater than or equal to 30kg/m2 with awake chronic hypercapnia (PaCO2 >45 mm Hg), and sleep-disordered breathing.
Other disorders that may cause hypoventilation should be ruled out first. Approximately 90% of patients with OHS also have obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).[1] Hypoventilation is worse during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep than during non-REM sleep.

74. All of the following are complications of acute pancreatitis EXCEPT
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypertriglyceridemia
D) Hypocalcemia
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

If plasma volume is 3 liters and hematocrit is 0.40, then total blood volume would be
A) 6 liters
B) 4.5 liters 3
C) 5 liters
D) 4 liters
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

3 /(1-0.4) = 3/0.6 = 5 Litres

75. The precore mutants in Hepatitis B are characterised by notable absence of
B) HBeAg
C) HBcAg
D) Anti HbeAg
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

A precore mutant is a variety of hepatitis B virus that does not produce hepatitis B virus e antigen (HBeAg).[1] These mutants are important because infections caused by these viruses are difficult to treat, [2] and can cause infections of prolonged duration and with a higher risk of liver cirrhosis.[3] The mutations are changes in DNA bases from guanine to adenine at base position 1896 (G1896A), and from cytosine to thymine at position 1858 (C1858T) in the precore region of the viral genome

76. Accepted screening test for Hyperaldosteronism is
A) Measurement of sodium levels
B) Measurement of aldosterone levels
C) Calculation of aldosterone renin ratio
D) Measurement of potassium levels
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The extra osmotic pressure in normal human plasma over and above that caused by dissolved proteins is due to
A) Donnan effect
B) Starling’s Forces
C) Nernst potential
D) Reynold’s number
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The Gibbs–Donnan effect (also known as the Donnan effect, Donnan law, Donnan equilibrium, or Gibbs–Donnan equilibrium) is a name for the behavior of charged particles near a semi-permeable membrane that sometimes fail to distribute evenly across the two sides of the membrane.[1]
The usual cause is the presence of a different charged substance that is unable to pass through the membrane and thus creates an uneven electrical charge.[2] For example, the large anionic proteins in blood plasma are not permeable to capillary walls. Because small cations are attracted, but are not bound to the proteins, small anions will cross capillary walls away from the anionic proteins more readily than small cations.

77. The most powerful predictor of survival in case of multiple Myeloma is
A) b2 Microglobulin
B) Serum IgG levels
C) Serum calcium
D) Urinary Bence-Jones proteins
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

78. The Neoplastic lesions which are most common AIDS-defining conditions in HIV infection are following EXCEPT
A) Kaposi’s sarcoma
C) Invasive cervical carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

AIDS Defining illnesses
Bacterial infections, multiple or recurrent*
Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, or lungs
Candidiasis of esophagus†
Cervical cancer, invasive§
Coccidioidomycosis, disseminated or extrapulmonary
Cryptococcosis, extrapulmonary
Cryptosporidiosis, chronic intestinal (>1 month’s duration)
Cytomegalovirus disease (other than liver, spleen, or nodes), onset at age >1 month
Cytomegalovirus retinitis (with loss of vision)†
Encephalopathy, HIV related
Herpes simplex: chronic ulcers (>1 month’s duration) or bronchitis, pneumonitis, or esophagitis (onset at age >1 month)
Histoplasmosis, disseminated or extrapulmonary
Isosporiasis, chronic intestinal (>1 month’s duration)
Kaposi sarcoma†
Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia or pulmonary lymphoid hyperplasia complex*†
Lymphoma, Burkitt (or equivalent term)
Lymphoma, immunoblastic (or equivalent term)
Lymphoma, primary, of brain
Mycobacterium avium complex or Mycobacterium kansasii, disseminated or extrapulmonary†
Mycobacterium tuberculosis of any site, pulmonary,†§ disseminated,† or extrapulmonary†
Mycobacterium, other species or unidentified species, disseminated† or extrapulmonary†
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia†
Pneumonia, recurrent†§
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Salmonella septicemia, recurrent
Toxoplasmosis of brain, onset at age >1 month†
Wasting syndrome attributed to HIV

Simulators are primarily used to
A) Localize the tumor
B) Duplicate the geometry of therapy machines
C) Duplicates the mechanical movements of therapy machines
D) All of the above
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

To be most effective, radiation therapy must be aimed precisely (within millimeters, despite breathing and movement) at the same target(s) every time treatment is given. The process of measuring your anatomy and marking your skin in ways that help us guide the beams of radiation safely and exactly to their intended locations is commonly called “simulation.”
Simulators are very precise machines that can duplicate the geometry of different types of treatment machines and via fluoroscopy and x-ray pictures allow us to visualize important structures inside patients.
This information is translated into aiming points, distances and angles. With the use of light and laser projection systems, we will place marks on your skin or on individually constructed immobilization devices that will help level and position you in 3-dimensional space. Marking can be done either with a bright, temporary carfuscin “paint” or a set of small permanent tattoos.

79. Felty’s syndrome is characterised by all of the following features EXCEPT
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Neutropenia
C) Nephropathy
D) Splenomegaly
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

80. Monogenic transmission of diabetes mellitus occurs in
A) Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
B) Non-insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
C) Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)
D) Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

MODY is a genetically heterogeneous monogenic disorder

Which of the following radioisotopes is most commonly used for HDR brachytherapy treatment ?
A) I – 125
B) CO – 60
C) Ir – 192
D) CS – 137
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

81. The test of choice for Giardiasis is
A) Stool Enzyme Immuno Assay (EIA)
B) Microscopy
C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
D) Duodenal Aspiration
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

enzyme immunoassay for Giardia antigen in the stool has a sensitivity of 95% and is the test of choice for giardiasis

82. Hallmark of Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis(ADEM) is
A) Encephalopathy
B) Ataxia
C) Cranial Neuropathies
D) Visual loss
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM) is a nonvasculitic inflammatory demyelinating condition that bears a striking clinical and pathological resemblance to multiple sclerosis (MS). In most instances, ADEM and MS cases occurring in children are readily distinguishable on the basis of clinical features and findings on laboratory investigations
The hallmark of ADEM is encephalopathy, with ongoing confusion

Craniospinal axis irradiation is indicated in the management of
A) Glioblastoma
B) Meningioma
C) Astrocytoma
D) Medulloblastoma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Medulloblastoma and other types of tumors that gain access to the cerebrospinal fluid can spread throughout the craniospinal axis
Standard therapy for medulloblastoma consists of aggressive surgery followed by radiation to the entire craniospinal axis

83. In large-for-date babies all viscera weigh more than normal EXCEPT
A) Kidney
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Liver
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

84. The Ig A anti TG 2 (TransGlutaminase) is a sensitive marker for diagnosis of
A) Celiac Disease
B) Eosinophilic Gastroenteritis
C) Primary Immunodeficiency
D) Crohn’s Disease
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The ‘overall burden of diseases’ is best detected by
A) Sullivan’s Index
B) Quality adjusted life years (QALY)
C) Human Developmental Index
D) Disability adjusted life years (DALY)
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

85. The maternal uniparental disomy for chromosome 15 results in
A) Angelman Syndrome
B) Prader – Willi Syndrome
C) Pallister – Killian Syndrome
D) Hypomelanosis of ITO
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Normally, we inherit one copy of each chromosome pair from our biological mother, and the other copy of the chromosome pair from our biological father. This is called paternal uniparental disomy. Uniparental disomy refers to the situation in which two copies of a chromosome come from the same parent, instead of one copy coming from the mother, and one copy coming from the fathe
Prader-Willi syndrome, on the other hand, can result when a baby inherits both copies of a section of chromosome #15 from the mother
In about 70 percent of cases, Prader-Willi syndrome occurs when the 15q11-q13 region of the paternal chromosome 15 is deleted in each cell. A person with this chromosomal change will be missing certain critical genes in this region because the genes on the paternal copy have been deleted, and the genes on the maternal copy are turned off (inactive).
In about 25 percent of cases, people with Prader-Willi syndrome inherit two copies of chromosome 15 from their mother instead of one copy from each parent. This phenomenon is called maternal uniparental disomy.

86. 13 year old female child presented with recurrent sinusitis fever, arthralgia, respiratory distress, Haematuria and hypertension. Renal Biopsy showed necrotizing granuloma. The anti proteinase-3 ANCA was positive. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Polyarteritis Nodosa
B) Wegener’s Granulomatosis
C) Microscopic Polyangitis
D) Churg-Strauss Syndrome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

All the following features contribute to High Risk Babies EXCEPT
A) Babies of working mother
B) Birth order of 4 or more
C) Artificial feeding
D) Weight less than 70% of the expected weight
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

87. The average whey/casein ratio in Breast milk is
A) 60 : 40
B) 80 : 20
C) 20 : 80
D) 40 : 60
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Milk protein can be divided into two classes based on relative solubility in acid: whey (acid soluble) and casein (acid insoluble). The whey:casein ratio of human milk is 70:30 as compared to a ratio of 18:82 for cow milk.

88. Most common cause of Bronchiolitis in children is
A) Adenovirus
B) Measles
D) Poliovirus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

‘Acculturation’ is defined as
A) Loss of cultural values
B) Opposition of two cultures on contact
C) Fading away of a culture
D) Diffusion of two cultures on both ways
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

89. “Sweaty feet” odour to urine occurs in
A) Homocystinurea
B) Isovaleric acidemia
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Alkaptonuria
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

90. Admission to Nutrition Rehabilitation center for severe Acute Malnourished child between 6 months to 5 years is all EXCEPT
A) wt/ht < – 3 SD
B) MUAC < 11.5 cm
C) wt < 2 SD for age D) Bilateral pedal edema C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 The patient will be enrolled in the Outpatient Therapeutic Program (OTP) if he/she satisfies the following criteria: Weight-for-height percent of reference median (WHM) ≤-2 S.D. AND MUAC ≤ 120 mm OR Presence of grade + or ++ bipedal pitting edemes. In addition to the above requirements, the consulting physician must certify the following: 1. The child is clinically well The child has an appetite (the child must consume a small dose of the RUTF in front of the physician to qualify for enrollment in the OTP) 3. The child is alert In “Housemaids knee” which of the following bursa is affected ? A) Suprapatellar B) Superficial infrapatellar C) Deep infrapatellar D) Prepatellar D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 DERMATOLOGY 91. Which of the following is a precancerous condition of the skin ? A) Bowen disease B) Seborrhoeic keratosis C) Leprosy D) Psoriasis A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 92. Drug of choice in dermatitis herpetiformis A) Steroid B) Phototherapy C) Dapsone D) Methotrexate C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 The floating tip of the iceberg represents __________ cases. A) Clinical B) Latent C) Presymptomatic D) Inapparent A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 93. Pseudo-Darier sign is seen in A) Urticaria pigmentosa B) Congenital smooth muscle hamartoma C) Xanthogranuloma D) Dermatofibroma B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Smooth-muscle hamartoma has been subdivided into two types, congenital (CSMH) and acquired (ASMH). The acquired type is distinct from the congenital form. CMSH is generally single, but multiple lesions have also been rarely reported in the literature.[6,7] A positive pseudo-Darier sign (temporary induration or piloerection after rubbing) is present in 80% of the patients.[6] Treatment of SMH is not necessary 94. Scraping the surface of the lesions in pityriasis versicolor will accentuate the scaling. This sign is known as A) Nikolsky sign B) Auspitz sign C) Coup D’ongle sign D) Carpet tack sign C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 When the scales are completely scraped off, the stratum mucosum (basement membrane) is exposed and is seen as a moist red surface (membrane of Bulkeley) through which dilated capillaries at the tip of elongated dermal papillae are torn, leading to multiple bleeding points .This is a characteristic feature of psoriasis and is known as Auspitz sign. It is attributed to parakeratosis, suprapapillary thinning of the stratum malphighii, elongation of dermal papillae and dilatation and tortuosity of the papillary capillaries. Carpet tack sign (cat’s tongue sign, tin tack sign) In DLE, characteristic lesions are well-defined erythematous plaques with partially adherent scales entering a patulous follicle. When the scale is removed, its undersurface shows horny plugs that had occupied follicles. This is called the carpet tack or tintack sign. However, carpet tack sign is not diagnostic of DLE. It is also seen in seborrheic dermatitis and pemphigus foliaceous. But in DLE, on removal of scale, bleeding may be seen due to adherent scales unlike in pemphigus foliaceous/seborrheic dermatitis, where the scales are loose Scratch sign (coup d’ongle sign, besnier’s sign, stroke of the nail) Pityriasis versicolor is characterized by asymptomatic hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches and produces fine scales (branny/furfuraceous). Often the scale is not visible. An important diagnostic clue may be the loosing of barely perceptible scale with a fingernail, which is called as the scratch sign . This sign may be negative if patient has taken recent bath or in case of treated lesion, in which case, only hypopigmentation persists. Saturated solution of common salt should not be used in case of suspected poisoning by A) Alcohol B) Kerosene C) Carbolic acid D) Vegetable poisons D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 95. Satellite papules are characteristic of following type of leprosy. A) Borderline Tuberculoid (BT) B) Polar Tuberculoid (TT) C) Borderline Lepromatous (BL) D) Polar Lepromatous (LL) A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Anaesthesia 96. Most confirmatory sign of endotracheal intubation is A) Chest rise B) Auscultation C) Spirometry D) Capnography D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Which of the following is NOT included as fundamental aspects of disaster management ? A) Disaster prevention B) Disaster Response C) Disaster preparedness D) Disaster mitigation A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 97. The pin index safety system of oxygen is A) 1, 5 B) 2, 5 C) 3, 5 D) 4, 5 B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 98. Respiratory toxicity of oxygen therapy can result in all EXCEPT A) increased pulmonary compliance B) ARDS like syndrome C) pulmonary atelectasis D) bronchopulmonary dysplasia in newborn A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 physiologic manifestations of oxygen toxicity include decreases in vital capacity, diffusing capacity, and lung compliance Q. Which of the following is NOT an approach of health education ? A) Regulatory B) Primary health care C) Service D) Management D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 99. During airway management in an unconscious trauma patient with possible cervical injury, one of the following should be avoided A) jaw thrust maneuver B) neck hyperextension C) manual neck stabilisation D) application of cervical collar B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 100. The local anaesthetic with highest cardiotoxicity is A) Lignocaine B) Bupivacaine C) Levo-bupivacaine D) Procaine B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 All of the following categories of biomedical waste can be disposed of by the method of Incineration EXCEPT A) Category 1 B) Category 2 C) Category 3 D) Category 4 D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Psychiatry 101. Hallucinations experienced outside the limits of one’s sensory fields are A) Functional hallucinations B) Extracampine hallucinations C) Pseudo hallucination D) Reflex hallucinations B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 102. Following diagnostic test can be used in identifying person with alcohol related disorders EXCEPT A) SGOT, SGPT B) Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) C) Hemoglobin D) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Consumption of which of the following cereal as staple diet is associated with Pellagra ? A) Rice B) Wheat C) Maize D) Bajara C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 103. A drug addict presented to psychiatry OPD with complaints of lacrimation, abdominal cramps, rhinorrhoea, diarrhoea and insomnia. He is suffering from A) Opioid withdrawal B) Opioid intoxication C) Cannabis intoxication D) Amphetamine withdrawal A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Amphetamine Withdrawal 
The five features from criterion B can be recalled by the mnemonic “PANTS” (as in an individual who pants when out of breath 
N -NIGHTMARES (vivid, unpleasant dreams)
T -TIREDNESS (fatigue) S -SLEEP (hypersomnia or insomnia) Cannabis Intoxication The four features in criterion C can be recalled by the mnemonic “MEAT.” (The mnemonic is in ref- erence to a possible increase in apetite.) M -MOUTH DRY
A -APETITE INCREASED T -TACHYCARDIA Opioid Intoxication Pupillary constriction (or dilation following an overdose) is present along with one of three fea- tures from criterion C. These three features of cri- terion C can be recalled by the mnemonic “SAD.” S -SLURRED SPEECH
D -DROWSINESS (or coma). Opioid Withdrawal These nine features from criterion B can be recalled by the mnemonic “ARMY FINDS” (as in a possible rmy finds Opioid Withdrawal In M -MUSCLE RIGIDITY Troops) A -ACHES (muscular) R -RHINORRHEA (or lacrimation) M -MOOD-DYSPHORIC Y -YAWNING F -FEVER
I -INSOMNIA N -NAUSEA (or vomiting) D -DIARRHEA S -SWEATING (piloerection, or pupillary dilation) Phencyclidine Intoxication At least two of eight features from criterion C de- velop within an hour of phencyclidine use. These eight features can be recalled by the mnemonic “MAP STAND.” 104. All of the following are true about Lithium (Li), EXCEPT A) Propranolol is effective in Li induced tremors B) Li is drug of choice for treatment of mania in 1st trimester of pregnancy C) Li has been effective in treatment of depression associated with Bipolar disorder D) Most common adverse renal effect of Li is polyuria B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 It is generally considered unsafe to take lithium during pregnanc Under IMNCI programme in outpatient health facility all of the following are danger signs EXCEPT A) Convulsions B) Difficult breathing C) Vomiting D) Lethargy B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 105. Personality changes are commonly seen with lesion of which of the following ? A) Limbic system B) Temporal lobe C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Radiology 106. Most common cause of supracellar enlargement with calcification in brain in children on C.T. scan is A) Craniopharyngioma B) Astrocytoma C) Meningioma D) Supracellar tuberculoma A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelet count falls below A) 50,000/ μ l B) 40,000/ μ l C) 30,000/ μ l D) 20,000/ μ l D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 107. Hyperdense basal ganglia and hypodensity of the white matter on CT scan is diagnostic of A) Alexander’s Disease B) Krabbe’s Disease C) Canavan’s Disease D) Metachromatic leukodystrophy B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 On MR basal ganglia and thalami were hyperintense on T1 W [and hypointense on T2W images vThe periventricular and cerebellar white matter showed hyperintensity on T2W FLAIR images Q. Which one of the following is NOT a component of validity of a screening test ? A) Sensitivity B) Specificity C) Precision D) Predictive value C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 108. Which of the following is a feature of malignant GIST of gastrointestinal tract ? A) Lobulated contour B) Striking absence of regional lymphadenopathy C) Endophytic growth D) Tumor homogenecity A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 109. Modality of choice for diagnosis of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is A) Scintigraphy B) MRI C) CT Scan D) Ultrasonography D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 The difference in incidence rates of disease (or deaths) between an exposed group and non exposed group is known as A) Relative Risk B) Attributable Risk C) Population Attributable Risk D) Odds Ratio B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 110. T1 and T2 images are features of one of diagnostic modality enumerated below A) USG B) CT Scan C) PET CT D) MRI D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Surgery 111. Modified Radical neck dissection does NOT preserve A) Spinal accessory nerve B) External Jugular vein C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle D) Internal Jugular vein B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Radical neck dissection (RND) refers to the removal of all ipsilateral cervical lymph node groups extending from the inferior border of the mandible superiorly to the clavicle inferiorly and from the lateral border of the sternohyoid muscle, hyoid bone, and contralateral anterior belly of the digastric muscle anteriorly to the anterior border of the trapezius muscle posteriorly. Modified radical neck dissection (MRND) is defined as the excision of all lymph nodes routinely removed in a radical neck dissection with preservation of one or more nonlymphatic structures (SAN, IJV, SCM). The preserved nonlymphatic structures should be specifically mentioned (eg, modified radical neck dissection with preservation of the IJV and SCM). A selective neck dissection refers to any neck dissection in which one or more lymph node groups removed in RND is preserved Q. Outbreaks of leptospirosis are usually expected after A) Earthquakes B) Floods C) Mud slides D) Avalanche B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 112. The loss of tension in vocal cord with diminished power and range of voice occurs in A) Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy B) Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerves paralysis C) Ext. branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy D) Tracheomalacia C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 The external laryngeal nerve is the smaller, external branch (ramus externus) of the superior laryngeal nerve. It descends on the larynx, beneath the sternothyroid muscle, to supply the cricothyroid muscle. It functions to tense the vocal cords by activating the cricothyroid muscle, increasing pitch. It gives branches to the pharyngeal plexus and the superior portion of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, and communicates with the superior cardiac nerve behind the common carotid artery. The external branch is susceptible to damage during thyroidectomy or cricothyrotomy, as it lies immediately deep to the superior thyroid artery. The ability to produce pitched sounds is then impaired along with easy voice fatigability, (usually mono-toned voice). Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve leaves the vocal cord abducted and poses an aspiration risk. 113. Melanocytes migrates from the neural crest to basal epidermis during A) Neonatal life B) Childhood C) Embryogenesis D) After birth C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Which of the following vaccines is most sensitive to heat ? A) Oral Polio vaccine B) BCG vaccine C) DPT vaccine D) Measles vaccine A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 114. Mycetoma which occurs in foot is of two types of which the one is Actinomycetoma and second one is A) Sudan mycetoma B) Eumycetoma C) Yemenmycetoma D) Pseudomycetoma D Correct Ans B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 115. In operation of pancreaticoduodenectomy for ca pancrease; one of the anastomons is known to leak more frequently A) Choledochojejunostomy B) Gastrojejunostomy C) Pancreaticojejunostomy D) None of the above C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Anastomotic leak at the pancreaticojejunostomy remains a common and dreaded complication after pancreaticoduodenectomy. Our aim was to determine the incidence, presentation, methods of managemen most anastomotic leaks at the pancreaticojejunostomy after pancreaticoduodenectomy can be managed conservatively Hysterosalpingography Procedure (HSG) should be performed A) During ovulation period B) Just after ovulation period C) During the period of menstrual bleeding D) In first half of menstrual cycle, following cessation of bleeding D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 he procedure is performed in the first half of the menstrual cycle following cessation of bleeding. The endometrium is thin during this proliferative phase, which facilitates better image interpretation and should also ensure that there is no pregnancy. The patient is asked to refrain from unprotected sexual intercourse from the date of her period until after the investigation to be certain there is no risk of pregnancy. Examination in the second half of the cycle is avoided because the thickened secretory-phase endometrium increases the risk of ve- nous intravasation and may cause a false-positive diag- nosis of cornual occlusion.9 116. In operated case of cholecystotomy, histopathological report suggest carcinoma of gall bladder restricted to mucosa. Further treatment will be A) Observation and follow up B) Reoperation with excision of wedge of liver C) Rt. hepatectomy D) Radiotherapy + chemotherapy A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 No further therapy other than cholecystectomy seems to be warranted for mucosal (pT1a) tumors; however, for those with muscular (pT1b) invasion, the need for further treatment is a topic of debate 117. The initial treatment of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is A) TIPSS B) Surgical shunt C) Surgical devascularisation D) Endoscopic Banding/Sclerotherapy D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Q. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia through foramen of Bochdalek is situated A) Anteriorly B) Postero laterally C) Diaphragmatic hiatus D) Antero laterally B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 118. Commonest malignancy in thyroid gland seen is A) Anaplastic carcinoma B) Follicular carcinoma C) Papillary carcinoma D) Medullary carcinoma C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 119. The part of colon worst affected by ischaemic colitis is A) Right colon B) Left colon C) Hepatic flexure D) Splenic flexure D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Q. Absence of clavicle is a feature of A) Cleido cranial dysplasia B) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia C) Fibrous dysplasia D) Cranio-metaphyseal dysplasia A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 120. Young’s Prostatectomy is a A) Retropubic Prostatectomy B) Perineal Prostatectomy C) Transvesical Prostatectomy D) Radical Prostatectomy B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Radical perineal prostatectomy (RPP) was described in 1905 by Young.[1] It was the first method used to remove the prostate as part of cancer therapy. In 1947, Millin first described radical retropubic prostatectomy (RRP).[2] He suggested the procedure as an alternative to RPP, on the grounds that patients often had pelvic lymph node metastases at diagnosis. As expertise in performing RRP improved, the importance of pelvic lymph node dissection (PLND) for staging became evident. Over time, RRP became the most common method of radical prostatectomy. Advantages of RPP over RRP include the following A small, hidden incision for better cosmesis Avoidance of major muscle groups Less pain and patient convalescence Faster return to work and strenuous activities Fewer adverse cardiovascular effects because fluid shifts are reduced Less blood loss Shorter operating time and duration of hospitalization Excellent posterior exposure to limit positive margins posteriorly, laterally, and apically Precise watertight anastomosis performed under direct vision Easier for patients who are obese Avoidance of scar tissue from previous abdominal surgery Better visualization of the prostatic apex – The improved visualization of the apex facilitates avoidance of positive apical margins, sparing of neurovascular bundles, and visualization of the membranous urethra Q. In Radiotherapy, electrons are mostly used to treat A) Prostate cancer B) Brain tumours C) Retinal Malignancies D) Skin cancers D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Electron beam radiation for cutaneous lymphoma Radiation therapy uses x-rays and electrons to treat skin tumours 121. Signs of thyroid deficiency are all EXCEPT A) Bradykinesis B) Tachycardia C) Hoarse voice D) Periorbital Puffiness B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 122. Parklands formula used for Burn’s resuscitation is A) 4 ml/kg/% TBSA B) 5 ml/kg/%TBSA C) 6 ml/kg/%TBSA D) 8 ml/kg/% TBSA A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Q. Which of the following condition is called as ‘Pseudo-dementia’ ? A) Confabulations B) Normal aging C) Delirium D) Depression D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 123. Adeno-carcinoma of oesophagus develops in A) Long standing achalasia B) Alcohol abuse C) Corrosive stricture D) Barret’s oesophagus D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 124. Painless gross hematuria occurs in A) Renal cell carcinoma B) Polycystic kidney C) Stricture urethra D) Wilm’s tumour A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 All are categories of learning disorders as per DSM IV-TR classification EXCEPT A) Language Disorder B) Mathematics Disorder C) Reading Disorder D) Disorder of Written Expression A (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 125. The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is A) Intussusception B) Iatrogenic adhesions C) Trauma D) Carcinoma B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 126. Treatment of pouch of Douglas abscess is A) Laparotomy B) Posterior colpotomy C) Antibiotics D) Extraperitoneal drainage B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 The commonest psychiatric sequelae following traumatic brain injury is A) Psychotic disorder B) Mood disorder C) Anxiety disorder D) Substance use disorder B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Depression is by far the most common psychiatric sequela following traumatic brain injury 127. Which of the following does NOT contribute to enterobiliary fistula ? A) Duodenal ulcers B) Gall stones C) Gastric ulcer D) Carcinoma of gall bladder C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 128. Most common type of Breast Carcinoma is A) Lobular carcinoma B) Colloid carcinoma C) Medullary carcinoma D) Ductal carcinoma D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 In a child with ADHD, while treating with drugs, the first choice of medicine is usually A) Donepezil B) Atmoxetine C) Clozapine D) Methylphenidate D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 129. Menetrier’s disease is characterized by all EXCEPT A) Hypertrophic gastric folds B) Foveolar Hyperplasia C) Hypoproteinemia D) Benign condition D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Menetrier’s disease is a rare premalignant disorder of the stomach generally described as hypertrophic gastropathy associated with hypoproteinemia and achlorhydria. This disease is characterized by excessive mucous secretion, but differs little from normal stomach with regards to the types of mucin produced. Gastric resection is still the most definitive treatment for the disease, but the appropriate extent of resection has not been determined. 130. Alpha Feto Protein is raised in A) Seminoma B) Teratoma C) Embryonal carcinoma D) Yolk-Sac Tumor D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 AFP is measured in pregnant women through the analysis of maternal blood or amniotic fluid, as a screening test for a subset of developmental abnormalities. Some of the diseases in which AFP will be elevated in a person are listed below: Omphalocele[21][22] Hepatocellular carcinoma/hepatoma: ↑ α-fetoprotein[23] Neural tube defects: ↑ α-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid and maternal serum[23][24] Nonseminomatous germ cell tumors Yolk sac tumor[23] Ataxia telangiectasia: Elevation of AFP is used as one factor in the diagnosis of ataxia telangiectasia.[25] Tumors: AFP can also be used as a biomarker to detect a subset of tumors in non-pregnant women, men, and children. A level above 500 nanograms/milliliter of AFP in adults can be indicative of hepatocellular carcinoma, germ cell tumors, and metastatic cancers of the liver. Delusion is an abnormal variant of which of the following ? A) Perception B) Thinking C) Memory D) Intelligence B (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 131. Carcinoma colon is NOT associated with A) Cowden’s syndrome B) Puetzlegher’s syndrome C) Polland’s syndrome D) Ruvalcaba-Myhre-Smith syndrome C (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome (BRRS) is a rare congenital disorder characterized by hamartomatous intestinal polyposis, lipomas, macrocephal 132. Ranson’s criteria on admission does NOT include A) WBC count B) Serum LDH C) Serum AST D) Serum ALT D (Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014 Parameters used: At admission: Age in years > 55 years
White blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3
Blood glucose > 10 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL)
Serum AST > 250 IU/L
Serum LDH > 350 IU/L
Within 48 hours:
Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit fall > 10%
Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L
Sequestration of fluids > 6 L

When a solvent is moving in one direction, it tends to drag along some molecules of solute. This is called
A) Filtration
B) Osmosis
C) Donnan effect
D) Solvent drag
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

133. First right posterior intercostal vein drains into
A) azygous vein
B) accessory azygous vein
C) superior intercostal vein
D) right brachio-cephalic vein
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

There are eleven posterior intercostal veins on each side. Their patterns are variable, but they are commonly arranged as:
The 1st posterior intercostal vein, supreme intercostal vein, drains into the brachiocephalic vein or the vertebral vein.
The 2nd and 3rd (and often 4th) posterior intercostal veins drain into the superior intercostal vein.
The remaining posterior intercostal veins drain into the azygos vein on the right, or the hemiazygos vein on the left.

134. Gluteus maximus muscle is innervated by
A) superior gluteal nerve
B) inferior gluteal nerve
C) pudendal nerve
D) subcostal nerve
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Maximum contribution to total plasma osmolarity is by
A) Na+ and Cl–
B) Plasma Proteins
C) Glucose
D) Urea
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

135. Septal papillary muscle is present in
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The papillary muscles are muscles located in the ventricles of the heart. They attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves (a.k.a. the mitral and tricuspid valves) via the chordae tendinae and contract to prevent inversion or prolapse of these valves

136. Portocaval anastomosis is present in the following areas of liver
A) Porta hepatis
B) Bare area of liver
C) Gall bladder fossa
D) Groove for Inferior vena cava
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

. The major portal-systemic anastomoses include:
1) esophageal branches of left gastric vein with esophageal veins,
2) superior rectal vein with middle and inferior rectal veins,
3) paraumbilical veins with subcutaneous veins of anterior abdominal wall,
4) retroperitoneal veins with venous branches of veins of the colon and bare area of the liver, and
5) a patent ductus venosus connecting left branch of portal vein to inferior vena cava (rare). These anastomoses are important clinically, providing collateral circulation during portal obstruction or hypertension, although they may become varicose;

When the surrounding temperature is greater than the skin temperature heat is lost from the body by
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

137.Inversion and Eversion occur at which joint ?
A) Ankle
B) Subtalar
C) Inferior tibio-fibular
D) Calcaneocuboid
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

he subtalar joint, also known as the talocalcaneal joint, is a joint of the foot. It occurs at the meeting point of the talus and the calcaneus

138. Which of the following nucleus is associated with archicerebellum ?
A) Fastigial
B) Globosus
C) Emboli formis
D) Dentate
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The archicerebellum is primarily concerned with the maintenance of balance (equilibrium). It has extensive connections with the vestibular and reticular nuclei of the brain stem, through the inferior cerebellar peduncles. Vestibular information is carried from the vestibular nuclei to the cortex of the ipsilateral flocculonodular lobe. Cortical efferent (Purkinje cell) fibres project to the fastigial nucleus which, in turn, projects back to the vestibular nuclei and to the reticular formation. A significant proportion of fastigial efferents cross to the contralateral side of the brain stem. The influence of the archicerebellum upon the lower motor system is, therefore, bilateral and principally mediated by means of descending vestibulospinal and reticulospinal projections.

The archicerebellum, or oldest portion in phylogenetic terms, is equated with the flocculonodular lobe and the associated fastigial nuclei.
The paleocerebellum approximates to the midline vermis and surrounding paravermis, together with the globose and emboliform nuclei.

The neocerebellum comprises the remainder (and vast majority) of the cerebellar hemisphere and the dentate nuclei.

Least pungent inhalational induction agent for children is
A) Halothane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Isoflurane
D) Desflurane

(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

139. The proximal part of tubotympanic recess gives rise to the
A) Pharyngo-tympanic tube
B) Tympanic antrum
C) Middle ear cavity
D) External ear
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

During the period of gestation, the tubotympanic recess was formed at the 12th day and began to extend to form the middle ear between the 13th and 14th days. A rapid increase in the volume of the tubotympanic recess was observed between the 15th and 16th days when a definitive division of the tubotympanic recess into the eustachian tube and middle ear cavity was observed. Postnatally the tubotympanum attained an adult form around day 9, and the maximum change of middle ear volume was noted on day 11, when the mesenchymal tissue in the middle ear cavity disappeared completely. Development of the ciliated cells was observed concurrently in both the eustachian tube and middle ear on the 16th gestational day,

140. Injury to common peroneal nerve at the neck of fibula will cause
A) Foot drop
B) Inability to evert the foot
C) Sensory loss over antero-lateral part of leg
D) All of the above
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The lateral sural cutaneous nerve (n. cutaneus suræ lateralis; lateral cutaneous branch) supplies the skin on the posterior and lateral surfaces of the leg.
The motor branches:
As the common fibular nerve exits the popliteal fossa, it courses around the lateral aspect of the leg just below the head of the fibula. Here it is apposed with fibula and gives off two branches, the superficial fibular (peroneal) branch and deep fibular (peroneal) branch.

The superficial peroneal nerve supplies the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg namely: peroneus longus and peroneus brevis. These two muscle help in eversion and plantar flexion of the foot.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are: tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and the fibularis (peroneus) tertius. Together these muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes.
The deep peroneal nerve also innervates intrinsic muscles of the foot including the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis.


141. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation deformity at hip is seen in
A) Fracture neck of femur
B) Posterior dislocation of hip
C) Inter trochanteric fracture
D) Anterior dislocation of hip
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

An Aplastic crisis and sequestration crisis during Anaesthesia can occur in which one of the following disease ?
A) Thalassemia
B) Sickle cell disease
C) Aplastic anaemia
D) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

142. Test to diagnose Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) injury is
A) Valgus test
B) Varus test
C) Lachman test
D) Posterior Drawer test
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

143. Acute Haematogenous osteomyelitis involves commonly following part of bone
A) Metaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) Growth plate
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

144. Sacroiliac joint involvement is seen in
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Reiter’s syndrome
D) Psoriatic arthritis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In “Housemaids knee” which of the following bursa is affected ?
A) Suprapatellar
B) Superficial infrapatellar
C) Deep infrapatellar
D) Prepatellar
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

145. Treatment of choice in Intra-capsular fracture neck femur in 35 yr. old male, presenting after 3 days is
A) Plaster and Cast
B) Hemiarthroplasty
C) Closed Reduction and Internal fixation by cancellous screws
D) Closed Reduction and internal fixation by Austin Moore’s pins
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Femoral neck fractures in young adults are uncommon and often the result of high-energy trauma. They are associated with higher incidences of femoral head osteonecrosis and nonunion
Open reduction and internal fixation through a Watson-Jones exposure is the recommended approach. Definitive fixation can be accomplished with three cannulated or noncannulated cancellous screws.

146. A 25 yr. old pt. underwent excision of right radial head. After surgery patient developed inability to extend the fingers and thumb. He did not have any sensory deficit. Which one of the following is most likely cause ?
A) High radial nerve palsy
B) Injury to posterior interosseus nerve
C) Injury to Anterior Interosseus nerve
D) Injury to common extensor origin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

It supplies all the muscles on the radial side and dorsal surface of the forearm, except the Anconæus, Brachioradialis, Extensor carpi radialis longus. In other words, it supplies the following muscles:
Extensor carpi radialis brevis – deep branch of radial nerve
Extensor digitorum
Extensor digiti minimi
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Supinator muscle – deep branch of radial nerve
Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor indicis
The posterior interosseous nerve (or dorsal interosseous nerve) is a nerve in the forearm. It is the continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve, after this has crossed the supinator muscle. It is considerably diminished in size compared to the deep branch of the radial nerve. The nerve fibers originate from cervical segments C7 and C8.
The posterior interosseous nerve may be entrapped at the Arcade of Frohse, which is part of the Supinator muscle. Posterior interosseous neuropathy is purely a motor syndrome resulting in finger drop, and radial wrist deviation on extension.

All of the following are electron carriers in the electron transport chain EXCEPT
Coenzyme Q
Fe-S centres
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

147. The best visibility of structures on radiograph depends on atomic weight of its constituent elements. Thus which of the following has highest atomic weight and thus maximum visibility on radiograph ?
A) Carbon
B) Barium
C) Calcium
D) Iron
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

148. All are true in Perthe’s disease EXCEPT
A) Average age of patient is 6-8 yrs
B) Common in male
C) Duration of symptom more than 6 wks.
D) Bilateral
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Most patients who develop Perthes disease have unilateral hip involvement. Bilateral involvement occurs in approximately 8-24% of case

Which one of the following conditions causes hemoglobin to release oxygen more readily ?
A) Metabolic Alkalosis
B) Hyperventilation, leading to decreased levels of CO2 in the blood
C) Increased production of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)
D) Replacement of β subunits with γ subunits
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

149. Osteochondromas are seen in all of the following EXCEPT
A) Hereditary multiple exostosis
B) Ollier’s Disease
C) Metaphyseal Aclasis
D) Diaphyseal Aclasis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Ollier disease is a rare nonhereditary sporadic disorder where intraosseous benign cartilaginous tumors (enchondroma) develop close to growth plate cartilage.

150. One of the following drug is NOT used for the treatment of osteoporosis
A) Alendronate
B) Calcitonin
C) Dexamethasone
D) Vitamin K
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


151. Cobblestone appearance of the conjunctiva is seen in
A) Spring catarrh
B) Angular conjunctivitis
C) Eczematous conjunctivitis
D) Trachoma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

All of the following are the sources for Gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
A) Lactate
B) Glycerol
C) Palmitate
D) Alanine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

152. Distant vision is measured at a distance of
A) 1 metre
B) 2 metres
C) 3 metres
D) 6 metres
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

153. Relative afferent pupillary defect is pathognomonic of
A) Optic neuritis
B) Retinal Holes
C) Papilloedema
D) Macular Edema
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Marcus Gunn pupil or relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is a medical sign observed during the swinging-flashlight test[1] whereupon the patient’s pupils constrict less (therefore appearing to dilate) when a bright light is swung from the unaffected eye to the affected eye
Marcus Gunn pupil is seen, among other conditions, in optic neuritis. It is also common in retrobulbar optic neuritis due to multiple sclerosis but only for 3-4 weeks, until the visual acuity begins to improve in 1–2weeks and may return to normal

Which of the following disease can NOT be treated by Gene Therapy ?
A) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
B) Leukemia
C) Cystic Fibrosis
D) Thalassemia
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

154. Physiological blind spot occurs because of
C) Optic disc
D) Oraserrata
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The optic disc or optic nerve head is the location where ganglion cell axons exit the eye to form the optic nerve. There are no light sensitive rods or cones to respond to a light stimulus at this point. This causes a break in the visual field called “the blind spot” or the “physiological blind spot”.
The optic disc represents the beginning of the optic nerve (second cranial nerve) and is the point where the axons of retinal ganglion cells come together. The optic disc is also the entry point for the major blood vessels that supply the retina

155. Foster Fuch’s spots are seen in
A) Hypermetropia
B) Iridocyclitis
C) Corneal ulcer
D) Myopia
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The Fuchs spot or sometimes Forster-Fuchs’ retinal spot is a degeneration of the macula in case of high myopi

156. Satellite lesions are seen in
A) Mycotic corneal ulcer
B) Bacterial corneal ulcer
C) Viral corneal ulcer
D) Protozoal keratitis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The most important buffer system in the plasma is
A) Protein buffer
B) Bicarbonate buffer
C) Phosphate buffer
D) Hemoglobin buffer
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

157. One of the following is NOT a feature of Retinitis Pigmentosa
A) Arteriolar attenuation
B) Optic atropy
C) Bony corpuscular pigments
D) Disc haemorrhage
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

158. The phacoemulsification probe has a hallow needle made up of
A) Titanium
B) Gold
C) Copper
D) Zinc
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The phaco probe is an ultrasonic handpiece with a titanium or steel needle

The vitamin required for carboxylation of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate is
A) Thiamine
B) Biotin
C) Pyridoxine
D) Niacin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

159. Epiphora occurs in
A) Iritis
B) Trachoma
C) Chronic dacryocystitis
D) Acute congestive glaucoma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Epiphora is an overflow of tears onto the face. A clinical sign or condition that constitutes insufficient tear film drainage from the eyes in that tears will drain down the face rather than through the nasolacrimal syste
Causes of epiphora include occular irritation and inflammation (including trichiasis and entropion) or an obstructed tear outflow tract which is divided according to its anatomical location (i.e. ectropion, punctal, canalicular or nasolacrimal duct obstruction). The latter is often due to aging (a spontaneous process), conjunctivochalasis, infection (i.e. dacryocystitis), rhinitis, and in neonates or infants, failure of the nasolacrimal duct to open. Another cause could be poor reconstruction of the nasolacrimal duct system after trauma to the area. Cause of trauma could be facial fractures (including nasoethmoid fractures or maxillary Le Fort fractures), and soft tissue trauma involving the nose and/or the eyelid.

160. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of LASIK ?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Keratoconus
C) Amblyopia
D) Prior penetrating keratoplasty
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Keratoconus, thin cornea, and previous radial keratotomy can cause problems with creating the flap and with healing, but patients with these conditions may be suitable for treatment with newer techniques and other forms of refractive surgery. I

161. Cardio Vocal Syndrome is also called
A) Ortner’s Syndrome
B) Lermoyez Syndrome
C) Pendred’s Syndrome
D) Jaccoud’s Syndrome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Ortner’s syndrome is a rare cardiovocal syndrome and refers to recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy from cardiovascular disease.[1] It was first described by Norbert Ortner (1865–1935), an Austrian physician, in 1897.
The most common historical cause is a dilated left atrium due to mitral stenosis, but other causes, including pulmonary hypertension,[2] thoracic aortic aneurysms and aberrant subclavian artery syndrome have been reported.[3]
Dysphagia caused by a similar mechanism is referred to as dysphagia aortica, or, in the case of subclavian artery aberrancy, as dysphagia lusoria. Due to compression of recurrent laryngeal nerve it can cause the hoarseness of the voice which is also one of the sign of the mitral stenosis. A second Ortner’s syndrome, Ortner’s syndrome II, refers to abdominal angina.

162. Hitzelberger’s sign is seen in
A) Acoustic Neuroma
B) Glomus Jugulare
C) Glomus Tympanicum
D) Meniere’s disease
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Hitzelberger sign
anesthesia of medial, posterior, or superior areas of the external auditory canal caused by an acoustic neuroma that is pressing against the facial nerve

Q. The metabolic pathway that occurs partly in mitochondria and partly in cytosol is
A) TCA cycle
B) Glycolysis
C) Urea cycle
D) Oxidative phosphorylation
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

163. Anterior pillar of tonsil is formed by
A) Palatopharyngeus muscle
B) Palatoglossus muscle
C) Genioglossus muscle
D) Hyoglossus muscle
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The anterior tonsillar pillar is the mucosa-covered palatoglossus muscle, and the posterior tonsillar pillar is the mucosa-covered palatopharyngeus muscle

164. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed by
A) Beta 2 microglobulin
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Albumin
D) Beta 2 transferrin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Unsheathed microfilaria are seen in
A) Wuchereria bancrofti
B) Brugia malayi
C) Loa loa
D) Onchocerca volvulus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

165. Tripod fracture involves
A) Ethmoid complex
B) Zygomatic complex
C) Orbital floor
D) Mandible
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The tripod fracture, also called the zygomaticomaxillary complex or malar fracture, is composed of a set of three (actually 4) bone fractures. The first portion of the tripod fracture involves the maxillary sinus including the anterior and postero-lateral walls and the floor of the orbit. The second portion involves the zygomatic arch. The third portion involves the lateral orbital rim, usually including the lateral orbital wall, or the zygomaticofrontal suture. The term is actually not accurate as there is a fourth suture that can be involved: The sphenozygomatic suture between the sphenoid and zygomatic bones.

All of the following enzymes act as Antioxidant EXCEPT
A) Superoxide dismutase
B) Lactate Dehydrogenase
C) Catalase
D) Glutathione peroxidase
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

166. The most common organism causing acute otitis media is
A) H. influenza
B) S. pneumoniae
C) M. catarhalis
D) S. aureus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

167. Mikulicz cell and Russel bodies are characteristic of ________
A) Rhinoscleroma
B) Rhinosporidiosis
C) Plasma cell disorder
D) Lethal midline granuloma
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Enterovirus associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is
A) Serotype 68
B) Serotype 69
C) Serotype 70
D) Serotype 71
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

168. Type of scale observed in Pityriasis rosea is
A) mica like
B) powdery
C) silvery
D) collarette like
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

169. The clinical features of seborrhoeic dermatitis include all of the following EXCEPT
A) Folliculitis
B) Vesiculobullous lesions
C) Erythroderma
D) Blepharitis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

All of the following viruses are transmitted through genital tract EXCEPT
Herpes simplex virus
B) Hepatitis virus
C) Papilloma virus
D) Coronavirus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Corona virus
MODE OF TRANSMISSION: By inhalation of aerosols, respiratory transmission from person-to-person and indirectly through contaminated fomites

170. Reticular lacy white pattern lesion on the buccal mucosa with skin lesions is a common clinical presentation of
A) Reiter’s disease
B) Pityriasis Rosea
C) Lichen planus
D) Lupus Vulgaris
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014


171. Prodromal symptoms of eclampsia are all EXCEPT
A) Severe Headache
B) Vomiting
C) Epigastric pain
D) Convulsions
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014
Lyme disease is caused by
A) Borrelia recurrentis
B) B. Duttonii
C) B. vincentii
D) B. burgdorferi
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

172. Following is true about oxytocin
A) It is decapeptide
B) Synthesized in posterior lobe of pituitary gland
C) Alcohol stimulates its release
D) It has half life of 3-4 minutes
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Oxytocin in a nine amino acid peptide

Most important cause of travellers diarrhoea is
A) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
B) Enteroinvasive Esch. coli
C) Enterohemorrhagic Esch. coli
D) Enteropathogenic Esch. Coli
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

173. Regarding prenatal genetic diagnosis (PGD) all are correct EXCEPT
A) Blastomere biopsy increases fetal anomaly
B) Linkage analysis is necessary when gene has not been sequenced
C) Polar body biopsy cannot assess paternal genotype
D) Fetal cells recovered from maternal blood can detect fetal chromosomal anomaly
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Blastomere biopsy, the most common method of embryo biopsy, involves the removal of one or two blastomeres when the embryo reaches the eight-cell stage, typically at the third day of development.

174. All are features of infant born to diabetic mothers EXCEPT
A) Obesity
B) Learning Disability
C) Ketotic hypoglycaemia
D) Future Diabetes Mellitus
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

High level disinfectant includes
A) glutaraldehyde
B) alcohols
C) phenols
D) Iodophois
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

175. Commonest cause of First trimester abortion is
A) Monosomy
B) Trisomy
C) Triploidy
D) Aneuploidy
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

176. Bishop’s score includes following EXCEPT
A) Effacement of cervix
B) Contractions of uterus
C) Dilatation of cervix
D) Station of head
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

India ink preparation of CSF is done to identify
A) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Naegleria fowleri
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Coxackie B
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

177. Which of the following is the most dangerous cardiac lesion in pregnancy ?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral regurgitation
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Eisenmenger’s syndrome
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

178. Chromosomal complement of primary oocyte is
A) 23 Y
B) 23 X
C) 46 XX
D) 46 XY
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Active immunity is not acquired by
A) Infection
B) Vaccination
C) Immunoglobulin transfer
D) Subclinical infection
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

179. Asymmetrical fetal growth restriction is associated with
A) Chromosomal aberration
B) Viral infection
C) Idiopathic
D) Placental insufficiency
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Asymmetrical IUGR is more common
In asymmetrical IUGR, there is restriction of weight followed by length. The head continues to grow at normal or near-normal rates (head sparing). A lack of subcutaneous fat leads to a thin and small body out of proportion with the head. This is a protective mechanism that may have evolved to promote brain development.
In these cases, the embryo/fetus has grown normally for the first two trimesters but encounters difficulties in the third, usually secondary to pre-eclampsia. Other symptoms than the disproportion include dry, peeling skin and an overly-thin umbilical cord. The baby is at increased risk of hypoxia and hypoglycaemia. This type of IUGR is most commonly caused by extrinsic factors that affect the fetus at later gestational ages.
Specific causes include:
Chronic high blood pressure
Severe malnutrition
Genetic mutations, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
Symmetrical IUGR is less common and is more worrisome. It is less commonly known as global growth restriction, and indicates that the fetus has developed slowly throughout the duration of the pregnancy and was thus affected from a very early stage. The head circumference of such a newborn is in proportion to the rest of the body. Since most neurons are developed by the 18th week of gestation, the fetus with symmetrical IUGR is more likely to have permanent neurological sequela.
Common causes include:
Early intrauterine infections, such as cytomegalovirus, rubella or toxoplasmosis
Chromosomal abnormalities
Maternal substance abuse (prenatal alcohol use can result in Fetal alcohol syndrome)

180. Shoulder dystocia is common with
A) Preterm birth
B) Placenta previa
C) Postdated pregnancy
D) Polyhydramnios
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Although the definition is imprecise, it occurs in approximately 1% of vaginal births. There are well-recognised risk factors, such as diabetes,[12] fetal macrosomia, and maternal obesity, but it is often difficult to predict.[13][14] Despite appropriate obstetric management, fetal injury (such as brachial plexus injury) or even fetal death can be a complication of this obstetric emergency.
Recurrence rates are relatively high

Non-cultivable fungus is
A) Rhinosporidium
B) Candida
C) Sporothrix
D) Penicillium
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

181. Commonest cause of Maternal Mortality in India is
A) Eclampsia
B) Sepsis
C) Obstructed labour
D) Haemorrhage
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

182. The most common form of compound presentation during labour is
A) Head & foot
B) Head & hand
C) Head & cord
D) Breech & hand
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Delayed hypersensitivity is initiated by
A) CD3+T cells
B) CD4 + T cells
C) CD8 + T cells
D) CD10 + T cells
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

183. The dose of Anti-D to be given after full term delivery in a non-immunised D-negative woman is
A) 100 μ gm
B) 200 μ gm
C) 300 μ gm
D) 400 μ gm
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

All RhD negative pregnant women were screened for fetal RHD genotype in the first trimester of pregnancy. Anti-D immunoglobulin (250–300 µg) was administered intramuscularly in gestational week 28–30 to participants with RHD positive fetuses.

184. In active management of 3rd stage of labour, Inj methylergometrin is given
A) After delivery of placenta
B) After delivery of baby
C) At the delivery of Anterior shoulder
D) After postpartum haemorrhage
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia favourable prognostic factors includes all EXCEPT ________.
A) age of 2 to 10 yrs
B) low white cell count
C) presence of t (12; 21)
D) presence of t (9; 22)
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

185. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) by MTP Act is permitted upto
A) 12 wks.
B) 16 wks.
C) 20 wks.
D) 24 wks.
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

186. Red degeneration of fibroid commonly occurs in
A) Postpartum
B) Antepartum
C) Intrapartum
D) Abortion
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Which of the following is associated with hypersensitive pneumonitis ?
A) Silicosis
B) Asbestosis
C) Byssinosis
D) Berylliosis
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP; also called extrinsic allergic alveolitis, EAA) is an inflammation of the alveoli within the lung caused by hypersensitivity to inhaled organic dusts
Byssinosis is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis which can result from exposure to cotton fibre

187. Streak ovaries are seen in which one of the following syndrome ?
A) Triple X
B) Klinefelter’s
C) Turner
D) Swyer’s
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

188. In normally menstruating women amenorrhea may be due to the following EXCEPT
A) Pregnancy
B) Anovulation
C) Mullerian Agenesis
D) Premature ovarian failure
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The blood index which reflects iron deficiency more accurately is
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

189. In Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia Type I, undifferentiated cells are confined to
A) lower third of the epithelium
B) lower 50-75% of the epithelium
C) entire thickness of epithelium
D) none of the above
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

190. If woman desires future fertility in case of early carcinoma of cervix (stage I) her best option is
A) Radiotherapy
B) Cone Biopsy
C) Cauterization
D) Radicle tracheolectomy with pelvic node dissection
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The standard treatment for patients with early-stage cervical cancer (IA2 and IB1) has been radical hysterectomy. However, for women interested in future fertility, a radical trachelectomy is now considered a safe and feasible option.

Mecasermin is recombinant human insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-I), which is used for the long-term treatment of growth failure in children with severe primary IGF-I deficiency.[1][2]
This drug is not to be confused with mecasermin rinfabate (trade name Iplex), which is a combination of recombinant human IGF-1 (rhIGF-1) and insulin-like growth factor binding protein-3 (IGFBP-3). IGFBP-3 serves to prolong the action of IGF-1 in the human body.

Mecasermin is indicated in
A) Active or suspected neoplasia
B) Intracranial hypertension
C) Impaired growth due to GH-deficiency
D) Enlarged tonsils due to lymphoid hypertrophy
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

191. 1b type of nerve fibers carry afferent impulses from
A) Muscle spindles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Golgi tendon organs
D) Nociceptors
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The Golgi organ (also called Golgi tendon organ, GTO, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) senses changes in muscle tension.
It is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that is at the origins and insertion[1] of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex.

192. Growth hormone secretion is decreased in
A) REM sleep
B) Stress
C) Exercise
D) Fasting
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Mean GH levels were higher during slow wave sleep (SWS) compared with other sleep stages. During sleep after deprivation, GH secretion was prolonged

Chemokine co-receptor 5 (CCR 5) inhibitor is
A) Enfuvirtide
B) Maraviroc
C) Raltegavir
D) Atazanavir
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

193. Resting membrane potential in mammalian spinal motor neurone is close to equilibrium potential of
A) Na+
B) Cl–
C) K+
D) Mg++
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

In fact, for many neurons, the equilibrium potential for Cl- is close to the resting potential—or even more negative. For this reason, opening Cl- channels tend to buffer the membrane potential; as the membrane starts to depolarize, more negatively charged Cl- ions enter the cell and counteract the effect. Thus, the opening of Cl- channels makes it more difficult to depolarize the membrane and hence to excite the cell. The opening of K+ channels has a similar effect. The importance of inhibitory neurotransmitters is demonstrated by the effects of toxins that block their action: strychnine, for example, by binding to glycine receptors and blocking the action of glycine, causes muscle spasms, convulsions, and death.

194. Sperms develop the capability of motility in the
A) Seminiferous tubules
B) Epididymis
C) Vas deferens
D) Female genital tract
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Capacitation is the penultimate[1] step in the maturation of mammalian spermatozoa and is required to render them competent to fertilize an oocyte. This step is a biochemical event; the sperm move normally and look mature prior to capacitation. In vivo this step typically occurs after ejaculation, in the female reproductive tract. In vitro, capacitation can occur by incubating sperms that have either undergone ejaculation or have been extracted from the epididymis in a defined medium for several hours.

Therapeutic use of Acetyl choline is NOT possible because it is
A) Highly protein bound
B) Rapidly degraded
C) Rapidly excreted
D) None of the above
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

195. After a carbohydrate rich meal insulin secretion is stimulated by
A) Cholecystokinin
D) GLP–1
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

196. All of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex are inhibitory EXCEPT
A) Purkinje cells
B) Basket cells
C) Granule cells
D) Golgi cells
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Granule cells use glutamate as their neurotransmitter, and therefore exert excitatory effects on their targets.

The absence of ganglion cells within the affected segment of bowel is a feature of
A) Tropical sprue
B) Hirschsprung’s disease
C) Celiac disease
D) Crohn’s disease

197. Which part of a neuron has the highest concentration of Na+ channels per square micrometer of cell membrane ?
A) dendrites
B) cell body
C) initial segment of axon
D) Node of Ranvier
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

198. Normal value of P50 (The partial pressure of O2, at which Hb, is 50% saturated with O2) in healthy adults at sea level is at
A) 20 mm Hg
B) 27 mm Hg
C) 35 mm Hg
D) 40 mm Hg
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

The toxic principle in cerebra thevetia is
A) Neriodorin
B) Karabin
C) Thevetin
D) Folinerin
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Yellow oleander (cerbera thevetia) poisoning with jaundice and renal failure

199. Ejection Fraction is a ratio of
A) Stroke volume to End-diastolic volume
B) Stroke volume to End-systolic volume
C) Stroke volume to Minute volume
D) End-diastolic volume to End-systolic volume
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

Railway spine is also known as
A) Concussion of spine
B) Fracture of spine
C) Dislocation of spine
D) Contusion of spine
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014

an abnormal condition due to severe concussion of the spinal cord, such as occurs in railroad accidents. It is characterized by ataxia and other disturbances of muscular function, sensory disorders, pain in the back, impairment of general health, and cerebral disturbance, – the symptoms often not developing till some months after the injury.

200. Which of the following is involved in colour vision ?
A) Geniculate layers 1-2
B) ‘M’ (magnocellular) pathway
C) Area V8 of visual cortex
D) Area V3A of visual cortex
(Maharashtra PGMAT) – 2014