SVIMS 2015



1. The mucosa of the oesophagus is lined by

A) Simple squamous epithelium

B) Stratified squamous epithelium

C) Simple columnar epithelium

D) Ciliated columnar epithelium

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

theesophagus is lined by stratified squamous epithelia 


2. Optic radiation traverses through the

A) Anterior limb of internal capsule

B) Posterior limb of internal capsule

C) Retrolentiform part of internal capsule

D) Sublentiform part of internal capsule

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


3. Dangerous layer of scalp is

A) Skin

B) Dense subcutaneous tissue

C) Epicranialaponeurosis

D) Loose connective tissue

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

S: The skin on the head from which head hair grows. It contains numerous sebaeceous glands and hair follicles.

C: Connective tissue. A dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.

A: The aponeurosis called epicranialaponeurosis (or galeaaponeurotica) is the next layer. It is a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.

L: The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium. In scalping the scalp is torn off through this layer. It also provides a plane of access in craniofacial surgery and neurosurgery. This layer is sometimes referred to as the "danger zone" because of the ease by which infectious agents can spread through it to emissary veins which then drain into the cranium. The loose areolar tissue in this layer is made up of random collagen I bundles, collagen III. It will also be rich in glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) and will be constituted of more matrix than fibers. This layer allows the more superficial layers of the scalp to shift about in relation to the pericranium.

P: The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair. It may be lifted from the bone to allow removal of bone windows (craniotomy).


4. Heart tube is derived from

A) Intra-embryonic somatopleuric mesoderm

B) Intra-embryonic splanchnopleuric mesoderm

C) Extra-embryonic somatopleuric mesoderm

D) Extra-embryonic splanchnopleuric mesoderm

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

endothelialheart tube is derived from the splanchnopleuric mesoderm


5. Damage to external laryngeal nerve produces weakness of voice due to paralysis


A) Cricothyroid muscle

B) Thyroarytenoid muscle

C) Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle

D) Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

The external laryngeal branch of superior laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle, which is the only laryngeal muscle not to be innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve. 




@ 6. Select the one FALSE statement among the following

A) The alveoli are lined predominantly by epithelial cells

B) Type II pneumocytes are a source of surfactant

C) Type I pneumocytes can divide to reconstitute type II pneumocytes after lung injury

D) Surfactant reduces surface tension and counteracts the tendency of the alveoli to collapse

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


Type I pneumocytes, Type II pneumocytes, and Clara cells

  • What are type I pneumocytes?
    • theycover 95% of alveolar surfaces, but only account for about 40% of the cells, they are lining the alveoli. They are thin for optimal gas exchange, and squamous cells. They CANNOT divide
  • What are type II pneumocytes?
    • theycover 5% of alveolar surface but account for 60% of the cells. They divide to replace injured type I cells. They are cuboidal and clustered. They secrete pulmonary surfactant to decrease alveolar surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse. They proliferate during lung damage.
  • What are clara cells?
    • they are nonciliated, low columnar/cuboidal cells with secretory granules. They secrete a component of surfactant, degrade toxins, and act as reserve cells.



7. Which one of the following plasma clearance tests may be used for measuring

renal blood flow?

A) Para amino hippuric acid clearance test

B) Urea clearance test

C) Creatinine clearance test

D) Inulin clearance test

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

  • Renal Clearance of INULIN is the Gold Standard for determination of GFR.
  • Para amino hippuric acid clearance test
  • Renal blood flow measurements are performed using the clearance of PAH(paraaminohippuric acid)
  • >90% PAH is extracted from the plasma during the 1st pass through the kidneys. Therefore, renal clearance of PAH is commonly used as an estimate of renal plasma flow (RPF).


8. Which one of the following pressures will remain sub-atmospheric during both

inspiratory and expiratory phases of quiet breathing?

A) Intra alveolar pressure

B) Intra abdominal pressure

C) Intra thoracic pressure

D) Intra pleural pressure

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

A. The intrapleural pressure is always less than the intrapulmonary pressure.

B. The intrapulmonary pressure is subatmospheric during inspiration and greater than the atmospheric pressure during expiration.


9. A person is having tidal volume 500 ml, vital capacity 4700 ml and inspiratory

capacity 3500 ml. His expiratory reserve volume will be

A) 4200 ml

B) 3000 ml

C) 1200 ml

D) 700 ml


  • The tidal volume (TV), about 500 mL, is the amount of air inspired during normal, relaxed breathing.
  • The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), about 3,100 mL, is the additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after the inspiration of a normal tidal volume.
  • The expiratory reserve volume (ERV), about 1,200 mL, is the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the expiration of a normal tidal volume.
  • Residual volume (RV), about 1,200 mL, is the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume is exhaled.
  • Summing specific lung volumes produces the following lung capacities:
    • The total lung capacity (TLC), about 6,000 mL, is the maximum amount of air that can fill the lungs (TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV).
    • The vital capacity (VC), about 4,800 mL, is the total amount of air that can be expired after fully inhaling (VC = TV + IRV + ERV = approximately 80 percent TLC). The value varies according to age and body size.
    • The inspiratory capacity (IC), about 3,600 mL, is the maximum amount of air that can be inspired (IC = TV + IRV).
    • The functional residual capacity (FRC), about 2,400 mL, is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration (FRC = RV + ERV).


10. A blood sample had PCV 0.45L, total RBC count 5X1012/L and Hb 150g/L; The

MCV value of this sample will be

A) 30 pg

B) 33.33 %

C) 100 μL

D) 90 fL

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

MCV = [PCV x 10] ÷ RBC. expressed in femtoliters

(0.45 x10) /5X1012=   90fL




16. The following test indicates viral replication in a person infected with hepatitis B

A) Hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)

B) Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg)

C) Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

D) Anti HBc

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


17. Melioidosis is caused by

A) Burkholderiapseudomallei

B) Ehrlichiachaffeensis

C) Francisellatularensis

D) Streptococcus milleri

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


18. Which of the following vaccine produces mucosal immunity

A) Sabin polio vaccine

B) DPT vaccine

C) BCG vaccine

D) Salk polio vaccine

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


19. The graft taken from an individual and placed on another individual of the same

genetic constitution i.e identical twin is called as

A) Autograft

B) Isograft

C) Xenograft

D) Allograft

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


20. Extensive drug resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is defined as multidrug resistant

TB (MDR- TB) strain that becomes resistant to

A) Pyrazinamide and any one of the fluoroquinolones

B) Ethambutol and any one of the fluoroquinolones

C) Any one of second line aminoglycosides and one of the


D) Vancomycin and one of the fluoroquinolones

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

XDR-TB, an abbreviation for extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB), is a form of TB which is resistant to at least four of the core anti-TB drugs. XDR-TB involves resistance to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs, isoniazid and rifampicin, also known as multidrug-resistance (MDR-TB), in addition to resistance to any of the fluoroquinolones(such as ofloxacin or moxifloxacin) and to at least one of three injectable second-line drugs (amikacin, capreomycin or kanamycin).


21. Which of the following is NOT a common bacterial agent causing meningitis in


A) Klebsiella species

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Group B streptococci

D) Escherichia coli

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS



  • Bacteria are often acquired from the maternal vaginal flora. Gram-negative enteric flora and GBS are the dominant pathogens. In premature newborns who receive multiple antibiotics, those on hyperalimentation, and those who undergo various surgical procedures, Staphylococcus epidermidis and Candida species are uncommon but are reported in greater frequency in neonates. L monocytogenes is another well-known but fairly uncommon causative pathogen.
  • Early-onset GBS meningitis occurs during the first 7 days of life as a consequence of maternal colonization and the absence of protective antibody in the neonate; it is often associated with obstetric complications. The disease is seen most often in premature or low-birth-weight babies. Pathogens are acquired before or during the birth process.
  • Late-onset meningitis is defined as disease occurring after 7 days of life. Causes include perinatally acquired and nosocomial pathogens. Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS) is classified into 5 distinct serotypes: Ia, Ib, Ic, II, and III. Although these serotypes occur with almost equal frequency in the early onset of disease, serotype III causes 90% of late-onset disease.
  • Use of respiratory equipment in the nursery increases the risk of infection caused by Serratiamarcescens,Pseudomonasaeruginosa, and Proteus species. Invasive devices predispose infants to the infections caused by S epidermidis and Pseudomonas, Citrobacter, and Bacteroides species.
  • Infection with Citrobacterdiversus, Citrobacterkoseri, Salmonella species, and Proteus species, though uncommon, carries a high mortality. These patients often develop brain abscesses, particularly those with Citrobacter, in whom meningitis produces brain abscesses in 80-90% of cases.



22.. A 50 year old male was diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. The choice of a

suitable antibiotic includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) Beta-lactams

B) Macrolides

C) Fluoroquinolones

D) Tetracycline

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


23. Thrombospondin is a

A) Anticoagulant

B) Angiogenesis inhibitor

C) Thrombolytic agent

D) Tumour marker

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Thrombospondins (TSP) are secreted proteins with antiangiogenic abilities

TSP-1 and TSP-2 are produced by immature astrocytes during brain development, which promotes the development of new synapses


24. Imatinib inhibits

A) BCR-ABL gene product, tyrosine kinase

B) HER2 receptor

C) TP53 gene

D) VEGF2, a stimulant of angiogenesis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


25. Tolvaptan is used in

A) Hypocalcaemia

B) Hypokalaemia

C) Hypomagnesaemia

D) Hyponatraemia

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Tolvaptan, is a selective, competitive vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist used to treat hyponatremia (low blood sodium levels) associated with congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).


26. The calcium channel blocker having maximum both suppression of automaticity and

suppression of conduction is

A) Verapamil

B) Nifedipine

C) Nicardipine

D) Amlodipine

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


27. Of the following anti-diabetic drugs, the second generation sulfonylurea is

A) Glyburide

B) Tolbutamide

C) Tolazamide

D) Chlorpropamide

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS




28. Birbeck granules are characteristically seen in

A) Granulomatous vasculitis

B) Langerhans cell histiocytosis

C) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

D) Primary amyloidosis

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


29. Autosomal dominant inherited cancer syndromes include all EXCEPT

A) Retinoblastoma

B) Li-Fraumeni syndrome

C) Familial adenomatous polyposis

D) Xerodermapigmentosum

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


30. An example of type3 hypersensitivity reaction is

A) Acute rheumatic fever

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Myasthenia gravis

D) Polyarteritisnodosa

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


31. The type of amyloid seen in patients undergoing long term hemodialysis is

A) Transthyretin

B) Amyloid light chain

C) β2 microglobulin

D) Bence Jones protein

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS



34. Streaming of the basal epidermal nuclei on microscopic examination is seen in

A) Electrocution

B) Lightning

C) Ligature mark

D) Lead poisoning

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

By far the most characteristic and consistent microscopic change seen in burns is the streaming of the nuclei


35. An infant is brought to the emergency department with alleged history of violent

shaking by parents. Most characteristic injury is

A) Ruptured spleen

B) Pelvic bone fracture

C) Skull bone fracture

D) Subdural hemorrhage

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


36. Bridging of tissues occurs in

A) Abrasion

B) Incised wound

C) Lacerated wound

D) Stab wound

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


37. If a bullet remains in a living victim for a long time without causing significant harm, it is called

A) Dum-dum bullet

B) Piggyback bullet

C) Souvenir bullet

D) Antique bullet

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


38. DNA fingerprinting was discovered by

A) Southern

B) Galton

C) Crick

D) Alec Jeffery

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Professor Sir Alec John Jeffreys, FRS (born 9 January 1950 in Oxford, Oxfordshire, England) is a British geneticist, who developed techniques for DNA fingerprinting and DNA profiling which are now used worldwide in forensic science to assist police detective work and to resolve paternity and immigration disputes.




39. Disability adjusted life years means

A) Health adjusted life expectancy

B) Disease burden both in quality and quantity of life lived

C) Number of years lost due to illness, disability or early death

D) Number of years lost due to disability

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


40. A factor that is associated with exposure and outcome but distributed unequally

among cases and controls is

A) Bias

B) Confounder

C) Blinder

D) Discordant matcher

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


41. A new screening test for prostate cancer was introduced in a village with population

of 1000. The prevalence of prostate cancer is 10%. Out of the total population 200

were found to be positive with the new test. But only 80 among them truly had

prostate cancer. What is the sensitivity of the new test?

A) 20%

B) 40%

C) 80%

D) 86%

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

True positives =80

All diseased = (True positives +_False Negatives )  = Prevalence of disease x Total population = 10% of 1000 = 100

Hence Sensitivity = (80/100)  x 100  = 80 %

sensitivity or true positive rate (TPR)

eqv. withhit rate, recall



42. In a sub center with a population of 5000 already there are 100 cases of carcinoma

breast as on 1st January, 2014. New breast cancer cases detected till December

31st 2014 are 49. The incidence rate of breast cancer in the year 2014 is

A) 10/1000

B) 9.8/1000

C) 49/1000

D) 16/1000

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

incidence rate of breast cancer = (new cases / total population)

= 49/5000 = 10/1000


43. Ramu 30 years presented to PHC with history of cough for the last 5 months. He

gave history of anti-TB treatment for 2 ½ months. But he stopped the medicine for

the last 2 months since he was symptomatically better. Now his sputum AFB smear

is found to be positive. The line of management is

A) Continue Category-I treatment

B) Start again Category-I treatment

C) Give 1 extra month of continuous phase

D) Start Category-II treatment

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Treatment schedule


  • Newly diagnosed sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis
  • Sputum negative pulmonary tuberculosis with extensive  parenchymal involvement.
  • Severe form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis


  • Treatment failure cases
  • Relapse cases
  • Return after interruption


  • sputum negative pulmonary tuberculosis with minimal involvement
  • Less severe form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis

Drug Regimen

Category- 1: 2(H3 R3 Z3 E3) 4 ( H3 R3 )

Category- 2: 2( S3 H3 R3 Z3 E3)+ 1( H3 R3 Z3 E3 ) 5 ( H3 R3 E3)

Category- 3: 2( H3 R3 Z3 ) 4 ( H3 R3 )

H= INH 600mg, R= Rifampicin 450mg, Z= Pyrazinamide 1500mg,
E= Ethambutol 1200mg, S= Streptomycin 750 mg

Cat 2(H3 R3 Z3 E3) 4 ( H3 R3 ) means initial two months of therapy with INH, Rifampicin,Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol in a thrice weekly schedule followed by INH and rifampicin for a period of 4 months in a thrice weekly schedule

44. In a triage following a disaster, yellow colour code indicates
A) High priority treatment
B) Medium priority treatment
C) Ambulatory patients
D) Dead or moribund patient
Ans:B 2015 SVIMS
This advanced triage system involves a color-coding scheme using red, yellow, green, white, and black tags:

  • Red tags – (immediate) are used to label those who cannot survive without immediate treatment but who have a chance of survival.
  • Yellow tags – (observation) for those who require observation (and possible later re-triage). Their condition is stable for the moment and, they are not in immediate danger of death. These victims will still need hospital care and would be treated immediately under normal circumstances.
  • Green tags – (wait) are reserved for the "walking wounded" who will need medical care at some point, after more critical injuries have been treated.
  • White tags – (dismiss) are given to those with minor injuries for whom a doctor’s care is not required.
  • Black tags – (expectant) are used for the deceased and for those whose injuries are so extensive that they will not be able to survive given the care that is available


45. Countries are considered as hyperendemic for dengue syndrome if

A) dengue is the leading cause of hospitalization and death

B) 1 & 3 serotypes are found

C) it is spreading from urban areas to rural area

D) all the 4 serotypes are found

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


46. A contraceptive is used by 100 couples for a continuous period of 3 years. During

this period, 36 women among them became pregnant. PEARL index is

A) 1 per 100 women years (HWY)

B) 5 per HWY

C) 10 per HWY

D) 12 per HWY Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

{(36 x 12)/(100×36) } x 100 = 12 per HWY


47.. UJJAWALA scheme was to combat

A) Child marriage

B) Child labour

C) Child trafficking

D) Child abuse

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


  • ‘ is a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking, rescue and rehabilitation of women and child victims of trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation in India.
  • It was launched in 2007 by the Ministry of Women and Child Development

. It consists of certain mechanisms for the reintegration and repatriation of victims including cross border victims.

The Target Group or main beneficiaries of this scheme are women and child victims who have been trafficked for commercial sexual exploitation as well as those women and children who are vulnerable to becoming victims of this crime. These vulnerable sections include slum dwellers, children of sex workers, refugees, homeless victims of natural disasters and so on.

This scheme is being implemented by various Non Governmental Organizations to provide direct aid and benefit to victims of trafficking. Immediate relief to victims includes the provision of food, shelter, trauma care and counselling to the rescued victims. Later on, victims are provided skill training, capacity building, job placement and guidance in income generating activities to empower them and help them live independently.

The Ujjawala Scheme has five components –

  • Prevention – This part consists of the formation of community vigilance groups and adolescent groups called Balika and BalalaSanghs. It also includes the carrying out of sensitization workshops, seminars and awareness generation campaigns through street plays, puppetry, posters and leaflets. The main aim is to make functionaries such as the police and community sensitive towards the needs of victims of trafficking.
  • Rescue – This component includes creation of a network of contacts that include police, NGO’s, women’s groups, youth groups, panchayats, hotels, tour operators and so on. These contacts will be used to collect information on traffickers, suspicious people and vulnerable families. It also includes the cost of transportation, food, shelter, toiletries, clothing, trauma care/counselling and medical aid given to a rescued victim and the payment of incentives to decoy customers and informants.
  • Rehabilitation – This step offers refuge to victims in safe shelter homes with the provision of basic necessities such as food, clothing and medical care. It also includes specialized counselling, legal aid, formal or open school education for children and vocational training for an alternative livelihood.
  • Reintegration – This component involves restoring the victim to their family and community, if they desire. It includes the setting up of Half Way Homes, where gainfully employed groups of victims who wish to be reintegrated with the community, work and live semi independently. It also includes the cost of travel for the victim and an escort to her hometown.
  • Repatriation – This is applicable to cross border victims of commercial sexual exploitation. It includes the setting up of transit points at border checkpoints to provide food and other incidentals to the victim. It also includes documentation and cost of travel of the victim and an escort to her country of origin or border.





51. FEV1 / FVC is reduced in all of the following conditions EXCEPT

A) Asthma

B) Chronic bronchitis

C) Emphysema

D) Pulmonary fibrosis

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


52. The S1Q3T3 pattern in ECG is typically seen in

A) Acute myocardial infarction

B) Massive pulmonary embolism

C) Acute myocarditis

D) Acute severe asthma

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


53. Intermediate syndrome is seen in

A) Barbiturate poisoning

B) Carbon monoxide poisoning

C) Methanol poisoning

D) Organophosphorus poisoning

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Neurotoxic effects have also been linked to poisoning with OP pesticides causing four neurotoxic effects in humans: cholinergic syndrome, intermediate syndrome, organophosphate-induced delayed polyneuropathy (OPIDP), and chronic organophosphate-induced neuropsychiatric disorder (COPIND). These syndromes result after acute and chronic exposure to OP pesticides.

  • The intermediate syndrome (IMS) appears in the interval between the end of the cholinergic crisis and the onset of OPIDP.
  • Symptoms associated with IMS manifest within 24–96 hours after exposure. The exact etiology, incidence, and risk factors associated with IMS are not clearly understood, but IMS is recognized as a disorder of neuromuscular junctions.
  • IMS occurs when a person has a prolonged and severe inhibition of AChE and has been linked to specific OP pesticides such as methylparathion, dichlorvos, and parathion. Patients present with increasing weakness of facial, neck flexor and respiratory muscles.


54. Duroziez’s sign is seen in

A) Aortic regurgitation

B) Atrial septal defect

C) Mitral regurgitation

D) Ventricular septal defect

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


55. Pleural transudate is seen in

A) Acute pancreatitis

B) Bronchogenic carcinoma

C) Congestive cardiac failure

D) Rheumatoid disease

Ans:c   2015 SVIMS


56. Most common hypersecreting disease affecting pituitary involves secretion of

A) Growth Hormone

B) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

C) Prolactin

D) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


57. Risk of acute pancreatitis increases when there is

A) Increased cholesterol

B) Increased HDL

C) Increased LDL

D) Increased triglycerides

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


58. Austin Flint murmur is heard in

A) Aortic stenosis

B) Aortic regurgitation

C) Mitral stenosis

D) Mitral regurgitation

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


59. Rheumatic activity involves mostly

A) Aortic and tricuspid valves

B) Aortic and pulmonary valves

C) Mitral and tricuspid valves

D) Mitral and aortic valves

Ans:d  2015 SVIMS


60. A double apical impulse is characteristic of

A) Congestive cardiac failure

B) Dilated cardiomyopathy

C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans:c   2015 SVIMS


61. Yellow nail syndrome is associated with

A) Lymphoedema and exudative pleural effusion

B) Rheumatoid arthritis and pleural effusion

C) Smoking and carcinoma of the lung and pleural effusion

D) Tuberculosis and pleural effusion

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Yellow nail syndrome (also known as "Primary lymphedema associated with yellow nails and pleural effusion" is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to lymphatic hypoplasia) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing. It usually affects adults

Yellow nail syndrome: This patient has a std, a 20-year history of severe lymphedema of her legs; thick, ridged, yellowish, hypercurved thumbnails (top right); similarly affected, yellow-green to brown toenails (bottom right); and bilateral, chylous pleural effusions. A sample of her chylous pleural fluid is shown to the left of the radiograph.


62. Uthoff’s symptoms are the ancillary symptoms seen in

A) Myoclonic epilepsy

B) Multiple sclerosis

C) Cardiac conduction abnormalities

D) Myasthenia gravis

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Uhthoff’s phenomenon (also known as Uhthoff’s syndrome, Uhthoff’s sign, and Uhthoff’s symptom) is the worsening of neurologic symptoms in multiple sclerosis (MS) and other neurological, demyelinating conditions when the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, fever, or saunas and hot tubs.


63. Discriminant function is a prognostic indicator in management of

A) Alcoholic hepatitis

B) Bronchial asthma

C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation

D) Cardiogenic shock

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Alcoholic hepatitis

Discriminant Function = 4.6 * (Pt’s PT – Control PT) + TBili


64. Increased Reid index is a feature in

A) Chronic Bronchitis

B) Allergic Broncho pulmonary Aspergillosis

C) Chronic malaria

D) Lymphomas

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


65. A diabetic patient aged 50 years presents with swollen left ankle which is not painful and has instability while walking. X-ray of ankle shows destroyed joint. Most

probable diagnosis is

A) Charcot’s joint

B) Clutton’s joint

C) Osteomyelitis

D) Osteoarthritis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


66. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is associated with

A) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome

B) X-linked agammaglobulinemia

C) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy

D) Chronic granulomatous disease

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


67. All are measures to reduce intracranial hypertension EXCEPT

A) Hypoventilation

B) Barbiturate therapy

C) Therapeutic hypothermia

D) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS




81. Following is an example for autosomal recessive pattern of inherited genetic


A) Haemophilia A

B) Colour blindness

C) Retinoblastoma

D) Cystic fibrosis

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


82. A 12 year old boy with learning disability was seen in the child development centre

with a 12 month history of increasingly awkward gait and difficulty getting footwear.

On examination he has a scoliosis, marked pescavus, absent lower limb reflexes

and extensor plantar responses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Dermatomyositis

B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

C) Friedreich’s ataxia

D) Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


83. A previously well 16 year old boy presented to outpatients with a 6 month history of

frequent headaches. Recent problems with balance had occurred while playing

football for his school team. The headaches were relieved by lying flat. There was

a strong family history of migraine. Physical examination was normal apart from a

positive Romberg sign and unsteadiness on attempting to heel-toe walk. Reflexes

were normal. Most probable diagnosis is.

A) Arnold-Chiari malformation type 1

B) Idiopathic (benign) intracranial hypertension

C) Late onset muscular dystrophy (Becker)

D) Complicated migraine

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

The headaches most typical of Chiari I malformations are usually located at the back of the head, and are often made worse by exertion. There is often neck pain and stiffness. It is important to note that true migraine headaches are almost never caused by Chiari I malformations.


84. A child can walk well holding on to furniture but is slightly wobbly when walking

alone. She uses a neat pincer grasp to pick up a pellet and she can release a cube

into a cup after it has been demonstrated to her. She tries to build a tower of two

cubes with variable success. She is most likely at which of the following age?

A) 4 months

B) 6 months

C) 9 months

D) 1 year

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


85. An 8 month old infant arrives to the emergency department (ED) with a 2 day

history of diarrhea and poor fluid intake. Your quick examination reveals a

lethargic child; his heart rate is 180 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 30

breaths per minute and his blood pressure is low for age. He has poor skin turgor,

5 second capillary refill and cool extremities. Which of the following fluids is most

appropriate management for his condition?

A) Dextrose 5% in 1/4 normal saline (D5 1/4 NS)

B) Dextrose 5% in 1/2 normal saline (D5 1/2 NS)

C) Normal saline

D) Whole blood

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


86. During the examination of a 2 month old infant, you note that the infant’s

umbilical cord is still firmly attached. This finding prompts you to suspect which of

the following?

A) Occult omphalocele

B) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

C) Umbilical granuloma

D) Persistent urachus (Urachal cyst)

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Labial ulceration from which Escherichia coli was cultured in an 8-month-old girl with leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 (LAD I). Note the thin bluish scar at the superior aspect of the labia from an earlier cellulitis

This 10-month-old patient with severe leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I (LAD I) developed a cervical adenitis caused by Klebsiellapneumoniae.




91. Antidesmoglein antibodies are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of

A) Dermatitis herpetiformis

B) Bullous pemphigoid

C) Pemphigus vulgaris

D) Familial benign pemphigus

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus are two closely related, but clinically and histologically distinct, autoimmune skin diseases. The autoantigens for pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus are desmoglein 3 and desmoglein 1, respectively.


92. Moccasin foot is caused by

A) Actinomycetes

B) Nocardia

C) Dermatophyte

D) Candida albicans

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Tineapedis has various patterns and may affect one or both feet.

  • Chronic hyperkeratotictinea refers to patchy fine dry scaling on the sole of the foot
  • ‘Moccasin’ tinea is extensive hyperkeratotictinea, in which the skin of the entire sole, heel and sides of the foot is dry but not inflamed. The affected area does not include the top of the foot. This is usually caused by T. rubrum.
  • Athlete’s foot i.e. moist peeling irritable skin between the toes, most often in the cleft between the fourth and fifth toes.
  • Clusters of blisters or pustules on the sides of the feet or insteps (more likely with T. interdigitale).
  • Round dry patches on the top of the foot (ringworm like tineacorporis).


93. “Ring of Woronoff”is seen in

A) Lichen planus

B) Tineamanuum

C) Psoriai

D) Granuloma annulare

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Woronoff’s ring is a skin condition characterized by a blanched halo of approximately uniform width surrounding psoriatic lesions after phototherapy or topical treatments



94. Poikiloderma includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) Dyspigmentation

B) Telangiectasia

C) Follicular plugging

D) Cutaneous atrophy

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS




96. Phase II block is associated with the use of

A) Depolarizing drugs

B) Non depolarizing drugs

C) Inhalational agents

D) Anticholinesterases

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


97. Which one of the following is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist

A) Diazepam

B) Naloxone

C) Flumazenil

D) Neostigmine

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS



98. Most sensitive method for the detection of intraoperative myocardial ischemia is

A) Electrocardiogram-ST segment monitoring

B) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measurement

C) Coronary sinus lactate estimation

D) Transesophageal echocardiography

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

(TEE) is a more sensitive method of myocardial ischaemia detection compared to ECG.


99. Pin index for oxygen is

A) 1,5

B) 2,5

C) 3,5

D) 4,5

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS




101. Bipolar affective disorder type II is characterized by

A) Episodes of mania and depression

B) Episodes of hypomania and depression

C) Episodes of hypomania and dysthymia

D) Episodes of mania and dysthymia

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Bipolar disorder, also known as bipolar affective disorder (and originally called manic-depressive illness), is a mental disorder characterized by periods of elevated mood and periods of depression

  • The elevated mood is significant and is known as mania or hypomania depending on the severity or whether there is psychosis. During mania an individual feels or acts abnormally happy, energetic, or irritable.
  • They often make poorly thought out decisions with little regard to the consequences. The need for sleep is usually reduced.
  • During periods of depression there may be crying, poor eye contact with others, and a negative outlook on life.
  • The risk of suicide among those with the disorder is high at greater than 6% over 20 years, whileself harm occurs in 30–40%.
  • Other mental health issues such as anxiety disorder and drug misuse are commonly associated.
  • It is divided into bipolar I disorder if there is at least one manic episode and bipolar II disorder if there are at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode. In those with less severe symptoms of a prolonged duration the condition cyclothymic disorder may be present.


102. Mrs.A, 30 year old housewife, presents with fear of moving out of home alone for

about 2 years. She is constantly worrying about it, leading to continuous anxiety,

low mood and sleep disturbance. The symptoms have led to severe disability

making her homebound. What would be the appropriate diagnosis?

A) Agoraphobia

B) Depressive illness

C) Generalized anxiety disorder

D) Simple phobia

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


103. One of the following medications is not used for treatment of anxiety disorders?

A) Atomoxetine

B) Clonazepam

C) Sertraline

D) Venlafaxine

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Atomoxetineis a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor approved for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).


104. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a serious adverse effect of

A) Anti amoebic drugs

B) Anti epileptic drugs

C) Anti hypertensive drugs

D) Anti psychotic drugs

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS




106. Best investigation for guiding lung biopsies

A) Doppler

B) Ultrasonogram

C) Computerized tomography

D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


107. Piezoelectric crystals are main component of

A) Ultrasound transducers

B) Photomultiplier tubes

C) CT detectors

D) MRI coils

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


108. “Dawson finger sign”on MRI is seen in

A) Mesial temporal sclerosis

B) Multiple sclerosis

C) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis

D) Sub-acute sclerosingpanencephalitis

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Dawson fingers are a radiographic feature depicting demyelinating plaques through the corpus callosum, arranged at right angles along medullary veins (callososeptal location). They are a relatively specific sign for multiple sclerosis (MS), which presents as T2 hyperintensities.


109. Investigation of choice to demonstrate vesico-ureteric reflux

A) Intravenous pyelography

B) Ultrasonography

C) Micturatingcystourethrography

D) Cystoscopy

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Unilateral vesicoureteric reflux




111. The Harmonic Scalpel uses the following type of energy

A) Radiofrequency

B) Alternating current with a Bipolar probe

C) Ultrasound

D) Plasma coagulation

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

112. Thimble bladder is seen in

A) Tuberculosis of bladder

B) Schistosomiasis

C) Carcinoma bladder

D) Sarcoidosis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

USG image shows markedly thickened, reduced capacity urinary bladder


113. The surgery done for Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

A) Heller’s Myotomy

B) Ramstedt’s operation

C) Graham’s patch operation

D) Nissen’s operation

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


114. Which of the following is used for managing Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors which are refractory to IMATINIB treatment





Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Sunitinibis an oral, small-molecule, multi-targeted receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor that was approved by the FDA for the treatment of renal cell carcinoma (RCC) and imatinib-resistant gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)


115. The WHO surgical safety checklist includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) Sign in

B) Time in

C) Sign out

D) Time out

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


116. Capsule endoscopy has the following advantages EXCEPT

A) No sedation is required

B) It is painless procedure

C) Helps us visualize the entire small bowel

D) Suitable for patients with strictures in the bowel

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Endoscopic capsule end-on, showing six LEDs and camera lens.


117. The most commonly used fixative for surgical specimens is

A) 5% formaldehyde

B) 10% formaldehyde

C) 20% formaldehyde

D) 40% formaldehyde

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


118. One metabolic equivalent of task (MET) is equivalent to the following amount of

oxygen consumption by a 40 year old, 70kg man at rest

A) 2.5ml Oxygen/kg/min

B) 3.5ml Oxygen/kg/min

C) 4.5ml Oxygen/kg/min

D) 5.5ml Oxygen/kg/min

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

The Metabolic Equivalent of Task (MET), or simply metabolic equivalent, is a physiological measure expressing the energy cost of physical activities and is defined as the ratio of metabolic rate (and therefore the rate of energy consumption) during a specific physical activity to a reference metabolic rate, set by convention to 3.5 ml O2·kg−1·min−1 or equivalently:


119. The risk of deep vein thrombosis is maximum in which of the following surgeries

A) Neurosurgery

B) Pelvic trauma surgery

C) Cardiothoracic surgery

D) Inguinal hernia repair

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


120. Dunhill procedure is

A) Bilateral total lobectomy + isthmusectomy

B) Bilateral subtotal lobectomy + isthmusectomy

C) Total lobectomy on one side + isthmusectomy + subtotal lobectomy

on opposite side

D) Total lobectomy on one side + isthmusectomy

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

A Harley Dunhill procedure is also popular, in which there’s a total lobectomy on one side, and a subtotal on the other, leaving 4 to 5 grams of thyroid tissue remaining.


121. In organ transplantation which of the following is a Domino procedure

A) Recipient receives donor heart and lungs

B) Recipient receives only donor’s lungs

C) Recipient receives heart and lungs and donates his native heart to

another recipient

D) Recipient receives only donor heart

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

The Domino Operation

The domino procedure was first performed in 1989 at the Johns Hopkins Hospital in the United States and at Harefield Hospital in the United Kingdom. In this procedure, the native heart of a patient undergoing heart–lung transplantation is transplanted into a patient who requires only heart transplantation. Most patients selected have primary pulmonary disease and secondary right ventricular hypertrophy. These patients receive a heart–lung block and donate their native heart to a patient who requires heart transplantation alone


122. A lady, 36 years old with papillary carcinoma thyroid – 4 cm, with regional nodes

and no metastases. The stage will be

A) I




Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

  • Papillary and Follicular Thyroid Cancer in Patients Younger than 45 Years of Age:
    • Stage I Papillary and Follicular
      • In stage I papillary and follicular thyroid cancer, the tumor is any size, may be in the thyroid, or may have spread to nearby tissues and lymph nodes. Cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
    • Stage II Papillary and Follicular
      • In stage II papillary and follicular thyroid cancer, the tumor is any size and cancer has spread from the thyroid to other parts of the body, such as the lungs or bone, and may have spread to lymph nodes.
  • Papillary and Follicular Thyroid Cancer in Patients Older than 45 Years of Age:
  • Stage 1 Papillary and Follicular
    • In stage I papillary and follicular thyroid cancer, cancer is found only in the thyroid and the tumor is 2 centimeters or smaller.
  • Stage II Papillary and Follicular
    • In stage II papillary and follicular thyroid cancer, cancer is only in the thyroid and the tumor is larger than 2 centimeters but not larger than 4 centimeters.
  • Stage III Papillary and Follicular
    • In stage III papillary and follicular thyroid cancer, either of the following is found:
    • the tumor is larger than 4 centimeters and only in the thyroid or the tumor is any size and cancer has spread to tissues just outside the thyroid, but not to lymph nodes; or
    • the tumor is any size and cancer may have spread to tissues just outside the thyroid and has spread to lymph nodes near the trachea or the larynx (voice box).
  • Stage IV Papillary and Follicular
    • Stage IV papillary and follicular thyroid cancer is divided into stages IVA, IVB, and IVC.
  • In stage IVA, either of the following is found:
    • the tumor is any size and cancer has spread outside the thyroid to tissues under the skin, the trachea, the esophagus, the larynx (voice box), and/or the recurrent laryngeal nerve (a nerve with two branches that go to the larynx); cancer may have spread to nearby lymph nodes; or
    • the tumor is any size and cancer may have spread to tissues just outside the thyroid. Cancer has spread to lymph nodes on one or both sides of the neck or between the lungs.
  • In stage IVB, cancer has spread to tissue in front of the spinal column or has surrounded the carotid artery or the blood vessels in the area between the lungs; cancer may have spread to lymph nodes.
  • In stage IVC, the tumor is any size and cancer has spread to other parts of the body, such as the lungs and bones, and may have spread to lymph nodes.


123. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT in Barret’s esophagus?

A) It is due to GERD

B) Gastric metaplasia of lower esophageal lining

C) Intestinal metaplasia of lower esophageal lining

D) Premalignant

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


124. Sickle cell anemia is a result of

A) Nonsense mutation

B) Frameshift mutation

C) Transversion mutation

D) Transition mutation

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

The molecular basis for sickle cell disease is an A to T transversion in the sixth codon of the human β-globin gene

This simple transversion changes a polar glutamic acid residue to a nonpolar valine in the βs-globin chain on the surface of HbS (α2βS2) tetramers.


  • Transversion refers to the substitution of a (two ring) purine for a (one ring) pyrimidine or conversely in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).[1] It can only be reversed by a spontaneous reversion.
  • Although there are two possible transversions but only one possible transition, transition mutations are more likely than transversions because substituting a single ring structure for another single ring structure is more likely than substituting a double ring for a single ring.
  • Also, transitions are less likely to result in amino acid substitutions (due to "wobble"), and are therefore more likely to persist as "silent substitutions" in populations as single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
  • A transversion usually has a more pronounced effect than a transition because the third nucleotide codon position of the DNA, which to a large extent is responsible for the degeneracy of the code, is more tolerant of transition than a transversion: that is, a transition is more likely to encode for the same amino acid.
  • Transversions can be spontaneous, or can be caused by ionizing radiation or alkylating agents.

125. In Menetrier’s disease, the gastric mucosa shows/has

A) T-Cell infiltration

B) Mucus Hypersecretion

C) Deficient blood supply

D) H-Pylori infection

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Ménétrier disease (also known as hypoproteinemic hypertrophic gastropathy;), is a rare, acquired, premalignant disease of the stomach characterized by massive gastric folds, excessive mucous production with resultant protein loss, and little or no acid production. The disorder is associated with excessive secretion of transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-α)

MENETRIER’S DISEASE In this case, there was so much pit hyperplasia that the giant folds appeared to be covered by a myriad of polyps resembling hyperplastic polyps.


126. Most common site of colonic carcinoma is

A) Caecum and ascending colon

B) Descending colon

C) Transverse colon

D) Sigmoid colon

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


127. The most common type of intussusception in adults is

A) Colo-colic

B) Ileo colic

C) Jejunoileal

D) Jejuno gastric

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Colocolonic intussusception is the most common type in adult.

Intussusception can occur essentially anywhere, although in children there is a strong predilection for the ileocolic region:

  • ileocolic: most common (75-95%), presumably due to the abundance of lymphoid tissue related to the terminal ileum and the anatomy of the ileocaecal region
  • ileoileocolic: second most common
  • ileoileal and colocolic: uncommon


128. Most common site of Post-Gonococcal stricture of urethra

A) Bulbar urethra

B) Membranous urethra

C) Post meatal urethra

D) Prostatic urethra

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


129. In acute gastro-intestinal hemorrhage, an A-V malformation is seen in

A) Boerhaave syndrome

B) Mallory Weiss syndrome

C) Schatzki’s ring

D) Deulafoy lesion

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS



141. In dislocation of shoulder, commonest nerve injured is

A) Long thoracic

B) Radial

C) Circumflex

D) Dorsal scapular

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

axillary is also called circumflexnerve


142. Weakness of adductor pollicis is due to injury to

A) Median nerve

B) Ulnar nerve

C) Anterior interrosseous nerve

D) Radial nerve

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

The adductor pollicis is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8–T1).[3]

Between the oblique and transverse heads is a thin fibrous arcade which the nerve passes as it traverses the palm laterally. The nerve is accompanied by the deep palmar arch.


143. Winging of scapula is associated with following nerve injury

A) Dorsal scapular

B) Long thoracic

C) Spinal accessory

D) Posterior cervical

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


144. Brown tumour is associated with

A) Metastasis

B) Hyperparathyroidism

C) Osteosarcoma

D) Ewing’s Sarcoma

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


145. Froment’s sign is elicited for

A) Radial nerve

B) Ulnar nerve

C) Median nerve

D) Posterior interosseous nerve

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


146. Bohler’s angle is measured in X-rays in fractures involving the following bone

A) Cuboid

B) Calcaneum

C) Navicular

D) Talus

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


147. Following statement is true in Osteochondroma

A) It arises form diaphysis

B) It is covered by cartilaginous cap

C) It grows towards the neighboring joint

D) Growth continues after skeletal maturity

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

Solitary osteochondroma. Cut surface of surgical osteochondroma specimen. Cartilage cap and underlying bone with medullary continuity.


148. Infection of the flexor tendon of index finger can spread to

A) Thenar space

B) Radial bursa

C) Midpalmar space

D) Dorsum of hand

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

149. Keinbock’s disease represents osteochondritis of

A) Scaphoid

B) Talus

C) Lunate

D) Metatarsals

Ans:c   2015 SVIMS

150. Which of the following is a marker of new bone formation?

A) Alkaline phosphatase

B) Acid phosphatase

C) Hydroxyproline

D) Telopeptides

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS




151. The rate of dark adaptation is abnormal in all EXCEPT

A) Chronic iridocyclitis

B) Retinitis pigmentosa

C) Vitamin A deficiency

D) Primary open angle glaucoma

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Primary open angle glaucoma : rod part of dark adaptation worsening with advancing optic nerve damage


152. A patient using contact lens develops ring infiltrate in the cornea and has severe

pain. There was no history of trauma. The most probable diagnosis is

A) Acanthamoeba Keratitis

B) Bacterial Keratitis

C) Fungal Keratitis

D) Viral Keratitis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


153. Retinoblastoma develops following mutation or deletion of chromosome

A) 13q14

B) 13p14

C) 14p13

D) 14q13

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


154. Features of blunt trauma in the eye may include all EXCEPT

A) Rosette- shaped cataract

B) Vossius ring

C) Berlin’s edema

D) Weiss ring

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

PVD with Weiss Ring /Optic Nerve in Background

Vitreous Detachment

A Weiss ring: this is the condensed, thickened posterior surface of the vitreous that has now become visible as it has pulled away from the optic disc. It looks like a thin irregular ring of translucent material floating in the vitreous.


155. Which of the following drugs used in ophthalmology has both mast cell stabilizing

and anti-histaminic effect

A) Cromolyn sodium

B) Ketotifen

C) Olopatadine

D) Lodoxamide

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Olopatadine hydrochloride is an antihistamine (as well as anticholinergic and mast cell stabilizer), sold as a prescriptioneye drop (0.2% solution,),). It is used to treat itching associated with allergic conjunctivitis (eye allergies).

It should not be used to treat irritation caused by contact lenses. The usual dose for Patanol is 1 drop in each affected eye 2 times per day, with 6 to 8 hours between doses.

There is potential for Olopatadine as a treatment modality for steroid rebound (red skin syndrome.)




161. Merciful anosmia is characteristic of

A) Atrophic rhinitis

B) Rhinitis sicca

C) Rhinitis caseosa

D) Hypertrophic rhinitis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


162. Paracusiswillisii is seen in


B) Otosclerosis

C) Meniere’s disease

D) Serous otitis media

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


163. Trautmann’s triangle is bounded by all EXCEPT

A) Bony Labyrinth

B) Sigmoid Sinus

C) Superior Petrosal Sinus

D) Inferior Petrosal Sinus

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Trautman’s triangle

This is a triangular space bounded by –

  • Bony labyrinth anteriorly
  • Sigmoid sinus posteriorly
  • Dura containing superior petrosal sinus superiorly.

This triangle is a potential weak spot through which infections of temporal bone may traverse and affect cerebellum. Extra dural abscess involving the posterior cranial fossa is also possible when thin bone in this triangle gets breached in infections / cholesteatoma involving mastoid cavity.Since bone in this area is rather thin it can be drilled out to enter into the posterior cranial fossa. This can be used as an approach to posterior cranial fossa lesions.


164. Potato tumour is also called as

A) Rhinophyma

B) Squamous cell carcinoma

C) Adenoid cell carcinoma

D) Rhinosporidiosis

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

165. Recruitment phenonmenon is seen in

A) Cochlear lesion

B) Retrocochlear lesion

C) Otitis media

D) Glue ear

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS




171. The second maturation division of human ovum occurs at the time of

A) Fertilization

B) Implantation

C) Ovulation

D) Puberty

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


172. The living ligature of the uterus is

A) Parametrium

B) Endometrium

C) Inner layer of myometrium

D) Middle layer of myometrium

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


173. Ovary develops from

A) Mullerian duct

B) Genital tubercle

C) Genital ridge

D) Mesonephric duct

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


174. Regeneration of endometrium occurs from

A) Zonaspongiosa

B) Zonabasalis

C) Zonapellucidum

D) Zonacompactum

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


175. Placenta with umbilical cord attached to its margin is called

A) Cirumvallate placenta

B) Succenturiate placenta

C) Battledore placenta

D) Velamentous placenta

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Fetal surface of heart shaped placenta with Battledore insertion of cord


176. Most common site for metastasis in choriocarcinoma is

A) Vagina

B) Lungs

C) Liver

D) Brain

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


177. Gartner’s duct arises from

A) Mesonephric duct

B) Paramesonephric duct

C) Hindgut

D) Cloaca

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Gartner’s duct is a potential embryological remnant in human female development of the Wolff canals in the development of the urinary and reproductive organs.

  • The paired mesonephric ducts in the male, in contrast, go on to form the paired epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct and seminal vesicle.
  • In the female they may persist between the layer of the broad ligament of the uterus and in the wall of the vagina.

Vaginal cysts of mesonephric duct origin (Gartner’s duct cysts)

178. Kielland’s forceps is used in delivery for

A) After coming head of breech

B) Mentoposterior position

C) Rotation in transverse position of head

D) Midcavity extraction of head

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

179. Delivery of nuchal arms in breech can be accomplished by

A) Burns Marshall technique

B) Prague maneuver

C) MauriceauSmellie Viet maneuver

D) Lovset’s technique

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

180. Which is NOT a risk factor for placenta previa?

A) Primigravida

B) Smoking

C) Age more than 35 years

D) Previous dilatation and curettage

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


181. All the following are therapeutic applications of Mifepristone EXCEPT

A) Medical termination of pregnancy

B) Post coital contraception

C) Cushing’s syndrome

D) Post partum haemorrhage

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS

Mifepristone (or RU-486) is a synthetic, steroidal antiprogestogen and antiglucocorticoid drug. It is a 19-norsteroid  which antagonizes cortisol action competitively at the receptor level.

Mifepristone is a low-efficacy partial agonist of the progesterone receptor used as an abortifacient in the first months of pregnancy, and in smaller doses as an emergency contraceptive. It is also a glucocorticoid receptor antagonist to a lesser extent, and has occasionally been used in refractory Cushing’s syndrome (due to ectopic/neoplastic ACTH/cortisol secretion)


182. With semen parameters of volume-1.5ml; sperm concentration – 30 million/ml;

motile sperms- less than 20% ; and sperms with normal morphology -30% , the man

is said to have

A) Oligoasthenozoospermia

B) Teratozoospermia

C) Asthenoteratozoospermia

D) Oligospermia

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Asthenozoospermia (or asthenospermia) is the medical term for reduced sperm motility. Complete asthenozoospermia, that is, 100% immotile spermatozoa in the ejaculate, is reported at a frequency of 1 of 5000 men.

Causes of complete asthenozoospermia include metabolic deficiencies, ultrastructural abnormalities of the sperm flagellum (see Primary ciliary dyskinesia) and necrozoospermia.

Asthenoteratozoospermia is the combination of asthenozoospermia and teratozoospermia

  1. those having < 30% motility with> 60% abnormal forms



183. Diameter of engagement in face presentation is

A) Submentobregmatic

B) Submentovertical

C) Mentovertical

D) Mentofrontal

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS

Submentobregmatic 9.5 cms complete extension with face presentation


184. Organism causing “Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome”is

A) Gonococcus

B) Streptococcus

C) Candida albicans

D) Listeria monocytogenes

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


185. Which structure develops from genital fold?

A) Labia majora

B) Labia minora

C) Clitoris

D) Fourchette

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS

The clitoris is formed from the tubercle of the undifferentiated common tissue anlagen in the embryo.


186. What is the next step in management of term gestation with a nonreactive nonstress test?

A) Emergency caesarean section

B) Biophysical profile

C) Induction of labour

D) Repeat nonstress test

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


187. Banana sign on ultrasound is a characteristic feature of

A) Encephalocele

B) Holoprosencephaly

C) Anencephaly

D) Spina bifida

Ans:D  2015 SVIMS


188. Which is NOT a feature of strumaovarii?

A) Consists of thyroid tissue

B) Cystic in nature

C) Contains colloid material

D) Usually benign in nature

Ans:B  2015 SVIMS


189. The structure belonging to level II support of the uterus is

A) Uterosacral ligament

B) Ovarian ligament

C) Pelvic fascia

D) Levatorani

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS

Delancey’s three levels of pelvic support.

Level 1: The cardinal-uterosacral ligament complexprovi

des apical attachment of the uterus and vaginal vault to the bony sacrum. Uterine prolapse occurs when the cardinal-uterosacral ligament complex breaks or is attenuated.

Level 2: The arcustendineousfascia pelvis and the fascia overlying the levatorani muscles provide support to the middle part of the vagina.

Level 3: The urogenital diaphragm and the perineal body provide support to the lower part of the vagina.


190. Which is NOT used as a distending media in hysteroscopy?

A) Nitrous oxide

B) Carbon dioxide

C) Glycine

D) Saline

Ans:A  2015 SVIMS


191. Which of the following human papilloma virus genotypes have been found to be

most commonly associated with cervical cancer

A) Genotypes 6 & 8

B) Genotypes 12 & 14

C) Genotypes 16 & 18

D) Genotypes 20 & 22

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS


192. The commonest testicular tumour occurring in children below 3 years is

A) Seminoma

B) Teratoma

C) Yolk sac tumour

D) Dysgerminoma

Ans:C  2015 SVIMS